Are you preparing for the PTCB Pharmacy Technician Exam? then you are at the right place. With our free online PTCB Practice Tests you can test your knowledge. Whether you are just starting your preparation or looking to polish your skills, this practice test is a great way to assess your knowledge and improve your confidence. The pharmacy technican practice tests are modeled after the official PTCB exam structure and also we have practice tests related to each section of the Syllabus.
PTCB Practice Test 1 – 50 Practice Questions
Below is the PTCB Practice Test part 1 based on the topic Medications which covers Drug classifications, dosage forms, routes of administration, side effects, and interactions.
PTCB Practice Test 1
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Which of the following should never be crushed?
Correct
Extended-release (XR, ER) tablets should not be crushed as it disrupts the controlled release, leading to potential toxicity.
Incorrect
Extended-release (XR, ER) tablets should not be crushed as it disrupts the controlled release, leading to potential toxicity.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
Which type of insulin should never be mixed with other insulins?
Correct
Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin that should never be mixed with other insulins, as it alters pH and reduces efficacy.
Incorrect
Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin that should never be mixed with other insulins, as it alters pH and reduces efficacy.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
Which medication must be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption?
Correct
Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach because food, especially calcium or iron, can interfere with absorption, reducing effectiveness.
Incorrect
Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach because food, especially calcium or iron, can interfere with absorption, reducing effectiveness.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
A pharmacist advises a patient to avoid grapefruit juice while taking simvastatin. What is the main reason for this recommendation?
Correct
Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, reducing simvastatin metabolism, increasing its blood levels and toxicity risk, leading to rhabdomyolysis and liver damage. Patients must avoid grapefruit products.
Incorrect
Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, reducing simvastatin metabolism, increasing its blood levels and toxicity risk, leading to rhabdomyolysis and liver damage. Patients must avoid grapefruit products.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
What is the function of a black box warning on medication labels?
Correct
A black box warning is the strictest FDA warning, indicating severe or life-threatening risks associated with a medication, such as increased mortality or organ toxicity.
Incorrect
A black box warning is the strictest FDA warning, indicating severe or life-threatening risks associated with a medication, such as increased mortality or organ toxicity.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Which of the following drugs has the highest risk of causing birth defects (teratogenicity)?
Correct
Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Alternative anticoagulants like heparin are preferred.
Incorrect
Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Alternative anticoagulants like heparin are preferred.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
Which drug class increases the risk of tendon rupture, especially in elderly patients?
Correct
Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) weaken connective tissue, increasing the risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults.
Incorrect
Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) weaken connective tissue, increasing the risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults.
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
Which medication must be reconstituted before administration?
Correct
Amoxicillin oral suspension is supplied as a dry powder and must be reconstituted with water before use.
Incorrect
Amoxicillin oral suspension is supplied as a dry powder and must be reconstituted with water before use.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
A patient taking metoprolol for hypertension starts experiencing severe fatigue, cold extremities, and dizziness. Their heart rate is 45 bpm. What should be done first?
Correct
Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate. A resting HR of 45 bpm suggests bradycardia. Dose reduction is necessary, but sudden withdrawal can cause rebound hypertension, so tapering is required.
Incorrect
Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate. A resting HR of 45 bpm suggests bradycardia. Dose reduction is necessary, but sudden withdrawal can cause rebound hypertension, so tapering is required.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
Which drug is classified as a benzodiazepine?
Correct
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine, used for anxiety and panic disorders. It enhances GABA neurotransmitter activity, producing a calming effect.
Incorrect
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine, used for anxiety and panic disorders. It enhances GABA neurotransmitter activity, producing a calming effect.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
A patient receiving gentamicin for sepsis develops decreased urine output, elevated creatinine, and tinnitus. What is the most likely cause?
Correct
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are nephrotoxic and ototoxic, requiring close renal monitoring. Toxicity causes kidney damage (reduced urine output) and hearing loss (tinnitus).
Incorrect
Aminoglycosides like gentamicin are nephrotoxic and ototoxic, requiring close renal monitoring. Toxicity causes kidney damage (reduced urine output) and hearing loss (tinnitus).
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
A patient on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) experiences severe headache and high blood pressure after eating aged cheese. What is happening?
Correct
MAOIs block tyramine breakdown, leading to hypertensive crisis when consuming tyramine-rich foods (cheese, wine). Emergency treatment includes phentolamine or nifedipine.
Incorrect
MAOIs block tyramine breakdown, leading to hypertensive crisis when consuming tyramine-rich foods (cheese, wine). Emergency treatment includes phentolamine or nifedipine.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
Which of the following medications requires a filter during IV administration to prevent crystallization?
Correct
Phenytoin (Dilantin) can precipitate when mixed with incompatible solutions. A 0.22-micron filter is needed to prevent crystallization in IV administration.
Incorrect
Phenytoin (Dilantin) can precipitate when mixed with incompatible solutions. A 0.22-micron filter is needed to prevent crystallization in IV administration.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
A patient on warfarin therapy is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Three days later, they experience prolonged bleeding from minor cuts. What is the likely cause?
Correct
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits CYP2C9, reducing warfarin metabolism, leading to increased INR and bleeding risk. Warfarin dose adjustments and INR monitoring are required when taking interacting antibiotics.
Incorrect
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits CYP2C9, reducing warfarin metabolism, leading to increased INR and bleeding risk. Warfarin dose adjustments and INR monitoring are required when taking interacting antibiotics.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
Which medication is used to reverse opioid overdose?
Correct
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid overdoses by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids like fentanyl or heroin. It is administered intranasally or intravenously.
Incorrect
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid overdoses by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids like fentanyl or heroin. It is administered intranasally or intravenously.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
How should insulin be stored for long-term use?
Correct
Insulin should be refrigerated (2-8°C) to maintain potency. Freezing or exposing insulin to direct sunlight can degrade its effectiveness.
Incorrect
Insulin should be refrigerated (2-8°C) to maintain potency. Freezing or exposing insulin to direct sunlight can degrade its effectiveness.
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
A patient is prescribed fentanyl patches for chronic pain. What is an important counseling point?
Correct
Fentanyl patches must be rotated to prevent skin irritation. Heating pads increase drug absorption, leading to overdose risk. Patients must be educated on proper use.
Incorrect
Fentanyl patches must be rotated to prevent skin irritation. Heating pads increase drug absorption, leading to overdose risk. Patients must be educated on proper use.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
A patient taking carbamazepine for seizures begins experiencing dizziness, drowsiness, and double vision. What should be done?
Correct
Carbamazepine toxicity causes dizziness, drowsiness, and diplopia. Blood levels should be monitored to maintain a therapeutic range.
Incorrect
Carbamazepine toxicity causes dizziness, drowsiness, and diplopia. Blood levels should be monitored to maintain a therapeutic range.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
What is the primary route of administration for Heparin?
Correct
Heparin is primarily administered intravenously (IV) or subcutaneously for anticoagulation, as oral absorption is poor.
Incorrect
Heparin is primarily administered intravenously (IV) or subcutaneously for anticoagulation, as oral absorption is poor.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
A patient on lithium therapy develops slurred speech, tremors, and excessive thirst. Their recent lab test shows a serum lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. What is the best immediate action?
Correct
A lithium level > 2.0 mEq/L indicates severe toxicity. IV hydration enhances lithium excretion. Activated charcoal is ineffective as lithium is absorbed too quickly.
Incorrect
A lithium level > 2.0 mEq/L indicates severe toxicity. IV hydration enhances lithium excretion. Activated charcoal is ineffective as lithium is absorbed too quickly.
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in children due to risk of cartilage damage?
Correct
Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) can cause cartilage damage and should be avoided in children unless necessary.
Incorrect
Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) can cause cartilage damage and should be avoided in children unless necessary.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
A patient prescribed amiodarone for arrhythmia develops a persistent dry cough. What should be done?
Correct
Amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity presents as chronic cough or lung inflammation and can lead to fibrosis. The drug must be discontinued, and pulmonary function monitored.
Incorrect
Amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity presents as chronic cough or lung inflammation and can lead to fibrosis. The drug must be discontinued, and pulmonary function monitored.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of statins?
Correct
Statins (e.g., atorvastatin, simvastatin) can cause muscle pain (myopathy) and, in rare cases, rhabdomyolysis, a severe breakdown of muscle tissue.
Incorrect
Statins (e.g., atorvastatin, simvastatin) can cause muscle pain (myopathy) and, in rare cases, rhabdomyolysis, a severe breakdown of muscle tissue.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
A patient taking spironolactone is advised to avoid potassium-rich foods. Why?
Correct
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it reduces potassium excretion, increasing hyperkalemia risk. Patients should limit potassium-rich foods like bananas and avocados.
Incorrect
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it reduces potassium excretion, increasing hyperkalemia risk. Patients should limit potassium-rich foods like bananas and avocados.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
Which medication is commonly used as a dietary supplement?
Correct
Vitamin D supplements help maintain bone health and prevent deficiency-related conditions like osteoporosis.
Incorrect
Vitamin D supplements help maintain bone health and prevent deficiency-related conditions like osteoporosis.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
Which of the following is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
Correct
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that rapidly reverses sedation and respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepine overdose.
Incorrect
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that rapidly reverses sedation and respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepine overdose.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
A patient is prescribed a fentanyl patch for chronic pain but reports inadequate pain relief. Which factor could be responsible for decreased effectiveness?
Correct
Fentanyl patches require direct skin contact for absorption. Applying it to a hairy area can reduce effectiveness. The patch should be applied to clean, dry, non-irritated skin for optimal absorption.
Incorrect
Fentanyl patches require direct skin contact for absorption. Applying it to a hairy area can reduce effectiveness. The patch should be applied to clean, dry, non-irritated skin for optimal absorption.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
A patient receiving IV phenytoin starts experiencing slurred speech, dizziness, and hypotension. What is the most likely cause?
Correct
IV phenytoin should not exceed 50 mg/min in adults. Rapid infusion can cause hypotension, CNS depression, and cardiac arrhythmias due to direct vasodilatory effects. Infusion must be slowed.
Incorrect
IV phenytoin should not exceed 50 mg/min in adults. Rapid infusion can cause hypotension, CNS depression, and cardiac arrhythmias due to direct vasodilatory effects. Infusion must be slowed.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
Which medication requires a test dose due to anaphylaxis risk before full administration?
Correct
Paclitaxel (a chemotherapy agent) requires a test dose to check for anaphylactic reactions before full administration.
Incorrect
Paclitaxel (a chemotherapy agent) requires a test dose to check for anaphylactic reactions before full administration.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
Which drug is most likely to cause gynecomastia as a side effect?
Correct
Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, has anti-androgenic effects, leading to gynecomastia (breast enlargement) in males due to estrogenic activity.
Incorrect
Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, has anti-androgenic effects, leading to gynecomastia (breast enlargement) in males due to estrogenic activity.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
What is the purpose of an excipient in a tablet formulation?
Correct
Excipients are inactive substances that aid in tablet formation, improving stability, taste, or dissolution without contributing to the therapeutic effect.
Incorrect
Excipients are inactive substances that aid in tablet formation, improving stability, taste, or dissolution without contributing to the therapeutic effect.
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
What is the main purpose of USP Chapter <797>?
Correct
USP <797> provides guidelines for sterile compounding to prevent contamination and ensure patient safety in injectable medication preparation.
Incorrect
USP <797> provides guidelines for sterile compounding to prevent contamination and ensure patient safety in injectable medication preparation.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
What is a common side effect of opioid painkillers?
Correct
Opioid analgesics slow gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation, a major side effect requiring stool softeners or fiber intake.
Incorrect
Opioid analgesics slow gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation, a major side effect requiring stool softeners or fiber intake.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
Which vitamin deficiency is a major concern with long-term isoniazid therapy?
Correct
Isoniazid (INH) depletes Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), leading to peripheral neuropathy, which manifests as numbness and tingling. Supplementation is necessary.
Incorrect
Isoniazid (INH) depletes Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), leading to peripheral neuropathy, which manifests as numbness and tingling. Supplementation is necessary.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
A patient on digoxin and furosemide therapy for heart failure presents with nausea, confusion, and irregular heart rhythm. Which lab test should be checked first?
Correct
Hypokalemia from furosemide increases digoxin toxicity risk, leading to nausea, arrhythmias, and confusion. Potassium levels must be monitored regularly.
Incorrect
Hypokalemia from furosemide increases digoxin toxicity risk, leading to nausea, arrhythmias, and confusion. Potassium levels must be monitored regularly.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
A patient taking levothyroxine reports fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. What is the likely cause?
Correct
Levothyroxine absorption is reduced by food, calcium, or iron supplements, leading to persistent hypothyroidism symptoms. It should be taken on an empty stomach for optimal effectiveness.
Incorrect
Levothyroxine absorption is reduced by food, calcium, or iron supplements, leading to persistent hypothyroidism symptoms. It should be taken on an empty stomach for optimal effectiveness.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
Which factor can cause medication degradation?
Correct
Light exposure can degrade certain medications, reducing their potency. Drugs like nitroglycerin must be stored in dark containers.
Incorrect
Light exposure can degrade certain medications, reducing their potency. Drugs like nitroglycerin must be stored in dark containers.
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
A patient taking levothyroxine complains of persistent fatigue despite increasing the dose. Blood tests show high TSH and normal free T4. What is the most probable cause?
Correct
Levothyroxine absorption is reduced by calcium, iron, proton pump inhibitors, and food. It should be taken on an empty stomach with water and separate from other medications by at least 4 hours.
Incorrect
Levothyroxine absorption is reduced by calcium, iron, proton pump inhibitors, and food. It should be taken on an empty stomach with water and separate from other medications by at least 4 hours.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
Which drug must be stored in a glass bottle due to adsorption to plastic?
Correct
Nitroglycerin adsorbs to plastic IV tubing, reducing effectiveness. It must be stored and administered in glass bottles or special tubing.
Incorrect
Nitroglycerin adsorbs to plastic IV tubing, reducing effectiveness. It must be stored and administered in glass bottles or special tubing.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
Which enzyme system is responsible for most drug metabolism in the liver?
Correct
The Cytochrome P450 enzyme system metabolizes many drugs. Inhibitors or inducers of CYP450 can alter drug levels significantly.
Incorrect
The Cytochrome P450 enzyme system metabolizes many drugs. Inhibitors or inducers of CYP450 can alter drug levels significantly.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
Which factor can cause drug instability in storage?
Correct
Extreme temperatures, humidity, and exposure to light can degrade medications, affecting their potency and stability.
Incorrect
Extreme temperatures, humidity, and exposure to light can degrade medications, affecting their potency and stability.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
Which drug is most associated with irreversible ototoxicity?
Correct
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, causes irreversible ototoxicity by damaging the hair cells in the inner ear, leading to permanent hearing loss and balance issues. Monitoring drug levels is essential.
Incorrect
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, causes irreversible ototoxicity by damaging the hair cells in the inner ear, leading to permanent hearing loss and balance issues. Monitoring drug levels is essential.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
Which medication requires dose adjustment in patients with renal impairment?
Correct
Vancomycin is primarily eliminated through the kidneys, so dose adjustments are necessary to prevent toxicity in patients with renal impairment.
Incorrect
Vancomycin is primarily eliminated through the kidneys, so dose adjustments are necessary to prevent toxicity in patients with renal impairment.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
A patient taking atorvastatin and gemfibrozil presents with severe muscle pain and dark urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Gemfibrozil increases statin levels, raising the risk of rhabdomyolysis. Myoglobin from muscle breakdown can damage the kidneys, causing dark urine.
Incorrect
Gemfibrozil increases statin levels, raising the risk of rhabdomyolysis. Myoglobin from muscle breakdown can damage the kidneys, causing dark urine.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
Which of the following is a major contraindication for ACE inhibitors?
Correct
ACE inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril) are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their risk of fetal toxicity and developmental abnormalities.
Incorrect
ACE inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril) are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their risk of fetal toxicity and developmental abnormalities.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
What is therapeutic equivalence in pharmacy?
Correct
Therapeutic equivalence means two drugs produce the same clinical effect and safety profile in patients when administered in the same dosage.
Incorrect
Therapeutic equivalence means two drugs produce the same clinical effect and safety profile in patients when administered in the same dosage.
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
A patient taking methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis develops a non-healing sore on their lip and complains of frequent infections. What is the best action?
Correct
Methotrexate suppresses bone marrow, leading to leukopenia and infection risk. CBC monitoring is essential, and discontinuation may be required in cases of severe suppression.
Incorrect
Methotrexate suppresses bone marrow, leading to leukopenia and infection risk. CBC monitoring is essential, and discontinuation may be required in cases of severe suppression.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
A patient is taking clozapine for schizophrenia and develops fever, sore throat, and fatigue. Which test should be ordered immediately?
Correct
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, leading to life-threatening infections. Monitoring ANC levels is essential to detect early leukopenia and prevent complicatio
Incorrect
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, leading to life-threatening infections. Monitoring ANC levels is essential to detect early leukopenia and prevent complicatio
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
A patient on clozapine therapy develops persistent sore throat and fever. What test should be done immediately?
Correct
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe drop in neutrophils leading to infections. ANC levels should be checked, and the drug discontinued if dangerously low.
Incorrect
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe drop in neutrophils leading to infections. ANC levels should be checked, and the drug discontinued if dangerously low.
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
A patient taking rifampin for tuberculosis is started on oral contraceptives. What is the major concern with this combination?
Correct
Rifampin induces CYP450 enzymes, increasing estrogen metabolism, reducing contraceptive effectiveness. Patients should use an alternative or additional contraceptive method.
Incorrect
Rifampin induces CYP450 enzymes, increasing estrogen metabolism, reducing contraceptive effectiveness. Patients should use an alternative or additional contraceptive method.
PTCE Certification Exam – Pharmacy Technician
The Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) is administered by the PTCB for individuals seeking certification as pharmacy technicians in the United States. As there is limited learning opportunity on the Internet, we have come up with the SIE Practice Test Series to help aspiring professionals prepare effectively for the exam. This post covers the practice questions related to Medications topic and nearly you will get an opportunity to practice up to 50 Questions. So, we request all the aspirants to go through all the questions before takintg the PTCB final exam.
In the above PTCB Practice Exam, we have gathered 50 multiple choice questions related to the Medication. Moreover, we have covered nearly all major topics related to medications that are most commonly used in a pharmacy. The topics include drug classifications, common side effects, dosage forms, brand and generic names, and proper storage requirements. The practice exams will ensure that aspiring pharmacy technicians are well prepared with practical knowledge that mirrors real world scenarios in retail and hospital pharmacy environments.
PTCB Practice Test – Final Words
This post does not contain the Pharmacy or Medications study material. This post only contains up to 50 Multiple Choice Questions related to medications along with detailed explanation answers. Using these practice tests alone does not guarantee you will pass the PTCB exam, but provides a comprehensive assessment on which knowledge areas you need improvements in and can help you achieve a higher score.