CAPM Mock Test Series: Welcome to Part 5 of the CAPM® Mock Test Series! Here you’ll find 150 practice questions designed to mirror the real exam format and challenge your understanding of key project management concepts. This mock test covers essential domains such as integration, scope, time, cost, quality, and risk helping you track your progress and prepare with confidence.
The questions are updated as per the latest CAPM® exam content outline and PMI guidelines, ensuring you’re practicing with the most relevant and up-to-date material. Each question comes with a detailed explanation to help you track your understanding, learn from mistakes, and reinforce key project management concepts. If you are searching for CAPM® Mock Exams 2025, then you’re in the right place! Our updated mock test series is designed to reflect the latest exam standards and help you practice effectively with real exam-style questions and explanations.
CAPM Mock Test 5
We all know the CAPM® Mock Test plays a crucial role in exam preparation, as it helps candidates evaluate their knowledge, identify weak areas, and become familiar with the exam format and timing. Practicing with mock tests not only builds confidence but also improves time management and reduces exam-day anxiety. With detailed explanations provided for every question, you’ll not only test your knowledge but also learn as you go boosting both your confidence and performance on exam day.
CAPM Mock Test Practice Questions
The CAPM® exam contains 150 multiple-choice questions, including 135 scored questions and 15 unscored pretest questions that are used for future exam development. You’ll have 3 hours to complete the exam, and all questions are based on the latest PMI exam content outline and the PMBOK® Guide.
CAPM Mock Test 5
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Question 1 of 25
1. Question
Which of the following is NOT a principle of the Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)?
Correct
In the Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM), one of the core principles is collaborating, but it does not advocate compromising quality (Agile practice guide, page 110).
Incorrect
In the Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM), one of the core principles is collaborating, but it does not advocate compromising quality (Agile practice guide, page 110).
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Question 2 of 25
2. Question
Which of the following are key processes in the Elicitation Knowledge Area? (Select two)
Correct
The “Prepare for elicitation” process involves organizing and scheduling resources and preparing the necessary materials for the elicitation activities. The “Conduct Elicitation” process applies various elicitation techniques to extract information from stakeholders and other sources.
Option A: Determine Stakeholder Engagement process is part of stakeholder engagement and not elicitation.
Option C: Define and Elaborate Requirements belong to the analysis area, and not directly under elicitation.
Option E: Confirm Solution Evaluation Approach process is related to solution evaluation and not elicitation.
Incorrect
The “Prepare for elicitation” process involves organizing and scheduling resources and preparing the necessary materials for the elicitation activities. The “Conduct Elicitation” process applies various elicitation techniques to extract information from stakeholders and other sources.
Option A: Determine Stakeholder Engagement process is part of stakeholder engagement and not elicitation.
Option C: Define and Elaborate Requirements belong to the analysis area, and not directly under elicitation.
Option E: Confirm Solution Evaluation Approach process is related to solution evaluation and not elicitation.
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Question 3 of 25
3. Question
Which life cycle approach allows for feedback on unfinished work and encourages modifications based on that feedback?
Correct
An Iterative life cycle approach allows for feedback on unfinished work and encourages modifications based on that feedback. In iterative development, a project progresses through repeated cycles (iterations), where feedback is gathered and used to refine and improve the work in each subsequent iteration (Agile practice guide, page 21).
Incorrect
An Iterative life cycle approach allows for feedback on unfinished work and encourages modifications based on that feedback. In iterative development, a project progresses through repeated cycles (iterations), where feedback is gathered and used to refine and improve the work in each subsequent iteration (Agile practice guide, page 21).
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Question 4 of 25
4. Question
Which of the following is part of the project charter?
Correct
The project charter typically includes high-level information such as management provisions, which outline project governance, roles, and responsibilities, and provide authorization for the project to begin.
Option B: The detailed project schedule is part of project planning, not the charter.
Options C & D: The list of potential stakeholders and the stakeholder register are part of more detailed planning and stakeholder management.
Incorrect
The project charter typically includes high-level information such as management provisions, which outline project governance, roles, and responsibilities, and provide authorization for the project to begin.
Option B: The detailed project schedule is part of project planning, not the charter.
Options C & D: The list of potential stakeholders and the stakeholder register are part of more detailed planning and stakeholder management.
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Question 5 of 25
5. Question
The most appropriate project lifecycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement is:
Correct
An Adaptive project lifecycle model is best suited for environments with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement. This approach is flexible and responsive, allowing frequent feedback and adjustments throughout the project.
Options B & D: Progressive and tailoring are not standard project lifecycles.
Option C: Predictive works best in stable environments with well-defined requirements and minimal change.
Incorrect
An Adaptive project lifecycle model is best suited for environments with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement. This approach is flexible and responsive, allowing frequent feedback and adjustments throughout the project.
Options B & D: Progressive and tailoring are not standard project lifecycles.
Option C: Predictive works best in stable environments with well-defined requirements and minimal change.
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Question 6 of 25
6. Question
What is the role of a business analyst in relation to the project sponsor?
Correct
The business analyst works closely with the sponsor to define the problem, identify solutions, and ensure that the business vision is addressed in the solution. The business analyst also acts as a communication bridge between the sponsor and the project team, ensuring the sponsor’s needs are met throughout the project (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 50).
Incorrect
The business analyst works closely with the sponsor to define the problem, identify solutions, and ensure that the business vision is addressed in the solution. The business analyst also acts as a communication bridge between the sponsor and the project team, ensuring the sponsor’s needs are met throughout the project (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 50).
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Question 7 of 25
7. Question
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team responsible for achieving the project objectives?
Correct
A Project Manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team responsible for achieving the project’s objectives. The project manager oversees the planning, execution, monitoring, and completion of the project to ensure it meets its goals within scope, time, and budget.
Option B: The Functional Manager oversees a specific department or function within the organization, but not specific projects.
Incorrect
A Project Manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team responsible for achieving the project’s objectives. The project manager oversees the planning, execution, monitoring, and completion of the project to ensure it meets its goals within scope, time, and budget.
Option B: The Functional Manager oversees a specific department or function within the organization, but not specific projects.
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Question 8 of 25
8. Question
The project team is planning the next release but is unsure if the organization is ready to handle the transition to the new system. What should the team conduct to confirm the organization’s preparedness for the transition?
Correct
A Readiness assessment is conducted to confirm whether an organization is prepared for a transition to a new system. It evaluates various factors such as the organization’s capability, infrastructure, and stakeholders’ preparedness to handle the upcoming changes (PMI Guide to business analysis, pages 218 & 219).
Incorrect
A Readiness assessment is conducted to confirm whether an organization is prepared for a transition to a new system. It evaluates various factors such as the organization’s capability, infrastructure, and stakeholders’ preparedness to handle the upcoming changes (PMI Guide to business analysis, pages 218 & 219).
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Question 9 of 25
9. Question
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
Correct
The Project Scope Statement includes detailed information about the project’s scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. It provides a clear definition of what is included in the project and what is excluded, helping to guide project execution.
Incorrect
The Project Scope Statement includes detailed information about the project’s scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. It provides a clear definition of what is included in the project and what is excluded, helping to guide project execution.
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Question 10 of 25
10. Question
What is NOT included in the Procurement Statement of Work?
Correct
The SOW describes the procurement items to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. The SOW can include specifications, desired quantity, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements (PMI Process Groups, page 216). Prospective sellers are responsible for submitting their proposals, including pricing details.
Incorrect
The SOW describes the procurement items to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. The SOW can include specifications, desired quantity, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements (PMI Process Groups, page 216). Prospective sellers are responsible for submitting their proposals, including pricing details.
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Question 11 of 25
11. Question
Projects may be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what do these phases form?
Correct
The phases of a project are typically grouped together to form the Project Life Cycle, which defines the stages a project goes through from initiation to completion. Each phase provides an opportunity for management control and decision-making, ensuring the project remains aligned with its objectives.
Incorrect
The phases of a project are typically grouped together to form the Project Life Cycle, which defines the stages a project goes through from initiation to completion. Each phase provides an opportunity for management control and decision-making, ensuring the project remains aligned with its objectives.
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Question 12 of 25
12. Question
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes “pull” communication?
Correct
Pull communication is a method where the information is made available to recipients, but they must take the initiative to retrieve or access it, often from a shared repository (e.g., a website, intranet, or database). This method is commonly used when the volume of information is large, and not everyone needs or wants the same level of detail.
Option A: Letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes all fall under push communication, in which information is actively sent to recipients.
Option D: Pull communication is often used for larger volumes of information.
Incorrect
Pull communication is a method where the information is made available to recipients, but they must take the initiative to retrieve or access it, often from a shared repository (e.g., a website, intranet, or database). This method is commonly used when the volume of information is large, and not everyone needs or wants the same level of detail.
Option A: Letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes all fall under push communication, in which information is actively sent to recipients.
Option D: Pull communication is often used for larger volumes of information.
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Question 13 of 25
13. Question
Which emotional intelligence component involves the ability to navigate and resolve conflicts within the team?
Correct
Social skills in emotional intelligence involve the ability to build relationships, communicate effectively, and manage conflicts within a team. This component focuses on navigating interpersonal dynamics, including resolving disagreements and fostering collaboration. (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 26)
Incorrect
Social skills in emotional intelligence involve the ability to build relationships, communicate effectively, and manage conflicts within a team. This component focuses on navigating interpersonal dynamics, including resolving disagreements and fostering collaboration. (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 26)
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Question 14 of 25
14. Question
A project manager is using the critical path method to define the project schedule. One of the project activities lasts 5 days, with an Early Start (ES) on day 10, and a Late Start (LS) on day 15.
What is the activity’s total float?
Correct
Total Float = Late Start date – Early Start date = 15 – 10 = 5
Incorrect
Total Float = Late Start date – Early Start date = 15 – 10 = 5
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Question 15 of 25
15. Question
What type of management describes the continuous management of goods and services production to ensure business continuity?
Correct
Operations management refers to the continuous management of the production of goods and services to ensure the smooth functioning of day-to-day business activities and long-term business continuity. It focuses on maintaining efficiency, quality, and productivity in the ongoing processes of a company.
Incorrect
Operations management refers to the continuous management of the production of goods and services to ensure the smooth functioning of day-to-day business activities and long-term business continuity. It focuses on maintaining efficiency, quality, and productivity in the ongoing processes of a company.
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Question 16 of 25
16. Question
What is a product roadmap used for in business analysis?
Correct
A product roadmap is used to outline the long-term development and evolution of a product, providing a high-level plan of features, milestones, and releases. It serves as a strategic tool in business analysis to show how the product will mature, meet customer needs, and respond to market changes over time. It aligns stakeholders with the vision and direction of the product.
Incorrect
A product roadmap is used to outline the long-term development and evolution of a product, providing a high-level plan of features, milestones, and releases. It serves as a strategic tool in business analysis to show how the product will mature, meet customer needs, and respond to market changes over time. It aligns stakeholders with the vision and direction of the product.
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Question 17 of 25
17. Question
Who is primarily responsible for keeping the project aligned with the business objectives?
Correct
The Project Sponsor is primarily responsible for ensuring that the project remains aligned with the business objectives. They provide high-level guidance, support, and oversight to ensure that the project’s goals and deliverables align with the overall business strategy and objectives (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 207).
Incorrect
The Project Sponsor is primarily responsible for ensuring that the project remains aligned with the business objectives. They provide high-level guidance, support, and oversight to ensure that the project’s goals and deliverables align with the overall business strategy and objectives (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 207).
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Question 18 of 25
18. Question
What is the main focus of servant leadership in Agile?
Correct
In Agile, servant leadership focuses on facilitating collaboration, supporting the team, and removing any obstacles that may impede progress. The goal is to empower the team to self-organize and perform at their best (Agile practice guide, page 34).
Incorrect
In Agile, servant leadership focuses on facilitating collaboration, supporting the team, and removing any obstacles that may impede progress. The goal is to empower the team to self-organize and perform at their best (Agile practice guide, page 34).
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Question 19 of 25
19. Question
What approach focuses on making work visible and managing the flow of tasks?
Correct
Kanban focuses on making work visible and managing the flow of tasks through a visual board. It helps teams visualize their workflow, limit work in progress (WIP), and optimize the flow of tasks to improve efficiency (Agile practice guide, page 12).
Incorrect
Kanban focuses on making work visible and managing the flow of tasks through a visual board. It helps teams visualize their workflow, limit work in progress (WIP), and optimize the flow of tasks to improve efficiency (Agile practice guide, page 12).
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Question 20 of 25
20. Question
When is a product roadmap typically first developed in the product life cycle?
Correct
A product roadmap is typically first developed as part of the product visioning activity. During the visioning process, the long-term goals and direction of the product are established, and the roadmap serves as a strategic plan that outlines the major milestones, features, and releases. It provides a high-level view of how the product will evolve over time to achieve the product vision.
Options A & D: The roadmap should be developed before the execution, test, and launch phases.
Option B: The product roadmap often comes before the product backlog is fully defined. The roadmap sets the direction, and the backlog is then populated with specific tasks and features that align with the roadmap.
Incorrect
A product roadmap is typically first developed as part of the product visioning activity. During the visioning process, the long-term goals and direction of the product are established, and the roadmap serves as a strategic plan that outlines the major milestones, features, and releases. It provides a high-level view of how the product will evolve over time to achieve the product vision.
Options A & D: The roadmap should be developed before the execution, test, and launch phases.
Option B: The product roadmap often comes before the product backlog is fully defined. The roadmap sets the direction, and the backlog is then populated with specific tasks and features that align with the roadmap.
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Question 21 of 25
21. Question
In an Agile approach, what is the primary measure of progress?
Correct
In an Agile approach, the primary measure of progress is working software. Agile prioritizes delivering functional, usable software frequently over other indicators such as documentation or schedule adherence. The goal is to provide real value through regular, incremental deliveries. (Agile practice guide, page 9)
Incorrect
In an Agile approach, the primary measure of progress is working software. Agile prioritizes delivering functional, usable software frequently over other indicators such as documentation or schedule adherence. The goal is to provide real value through regular, incremental deliveries. (Agile practice guide, page 9)
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Question 22 of 25
22. Question
Which term refers to the rhythm of activities conducted throughout the project?
Correct
Cadence refers to the rhythm or regularity of activities conducted throughout the project. It often describes the consistent intervals at which tasks or iterations (such as sprints or releases) occur. (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 34)
Incorrect
Cadence refers to the rhythm or regularity of activities conducted throughout the project. It often describes the consistent intervals at which tasks or iterations (such as sprints or releases) occur. (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 34)
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Question 23 of 25
23. Question
Which leadership style evolves based on the competence and commitment of the team members?
Correct
Situational Leadership adapts and evolves based on the competence and commitment of the team members. Leaders using this style change their approach depending on the team’s development level, providing more direction or support as needed (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 156).
Incorrect
Situational Leadership adapts and evolves based on the competence and commitment of the team members. Leaders using this style change their approach depending on the team’s development level, providing more direction or support as needed (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 156).
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Question 24 of 25
24. Question
The traditional format of a daily stand-up meeting consists of gathering in a circle near a task board where each member takes their turn to answer a number of questions. Which of the following statements best describes the daily stand-up in agile?
Correct
The daily standup is a meeting held by members of the project team. This meeting brings the team together for a status update, to ensure that everyone is on the same page and has insight into what is going on, whether it’s good or bad. Such a meeting usually takes up to 15 minutes during which every team member is asked three questions: What did you do yesterday that helped your team meet the Sprint goal? What will you do today to help your team meet the Sprint goal? And, Did you face any impediments that prevented you or your team from meeting the Sprint goal? (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
Incorrect
The daily standup is a meeting held by members of the project team. This meeting brings the team together for a status update, to ensure that everyone is on the same page and has insight into what is going on, whether it’s good or bad. Such a meeting usually takes up to 15 minutes during which every team member is asked three questions: What did you do yesterday that helped your team meet the Sprint goal? What will you do today to help your team meet the Sprint goal? And, Did you face any impediments that prevented you or your team from meeting the Sprint goal? (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
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Question 25 of 25
25. Question
During an iteration review meeting, the product owner rejected one of the features demonstrated by the development team. What will happen next to the rejected user story?
Correct
The right step consists of understanding why the feature was not accepted in the first place, and then moving on to making the required updates. After that, the feature can be moved back to the backlog for reprioritization.
Option B: Deleting the user story is not a rational choice since the feature has already been developed, which implies that it brings added value to the product.
Incorrect
The right step consists of understanding why the feature was not accepted in the first place, and then moving on to making the required updates. After that, the feature can be moved back to the backlog for reprioritization.
Option B: Deleting the user story is not a rational choice since the feature has already been developed, which implies that it brings added value to the product.