SIE Mock Exam: The exam consists of 75 multiple-choice questions testing knowledge across four main sections: 1) Knowledge of Capital Markets, 2) Understanding Products and Their Risks, 3) Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts and Prohibited Activities, and 4) Overview of the Regulatory Framework. The exam focuses on industry terminology, securities products, market structure, regulators and prohibited practices.
SIE Mock Exam 3 – Securities Industry Essentials
The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam assesses a candidate’s basic knowledge of the securities industry. The exam focuses on industry terminology, securities products, the structure and function of the markets, regulatory agencies and their functions, and regulated and prohibited practices.
Much of the content on the SIE outline is based on common securities industry knowledge and general concepts. This knowledge is often not based on any one rule or regulation. Examples include basic characteristics of investment products such as the relationship between the price and yield of a bond and the rights of a common stockholder. Alternately, some knowledge is based on specific rules and regulations. Examples include the reporting requirements for a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) and the Uniform Application for Securities Industry Registration or Transfer (Form U4) filing requirements. The SIE Practice exam will assess candidates on both rule- and non-rule-based industry knowledge.
FREE SIE Mock Exam
Below is Part 3 of the SIE Mock Exam series.
SIE Mock Exam 3
Quiz-summary
0 of 75 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
Information
SIE Mock Exam 3
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 75 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- SIE 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 75
1. Question
The ‘quick ratio’ is a measure of a company’s:
Correct
The quick ratio measures a company’s liquidity by comparing its most liquid assets to its current liabilities, indicating its ability to meet short-term obligations.
Incorrect
The quick ratio measures a company’s liquidity by comparing its most liquid assets to its current liabilities, indicating its ability to meet short-term obligations.
-
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
An individual would be barred from association with a FINRA member firm for which of the following?
Correct
Under FINRA Rule 1017 and SEC “Statutory Disqualification” guidelines, an individual is subject to disqualification from associating with a FINRA member firm if they have been convicted of a felony or a securities-related misdemeanor within the past 10 years. A conviction for a securities-related misdemeanor 9 years ago falls within the 10-year disqualification period and would bar the individual from association.
Incorrect
Under FINRA Rule 1017 and SEC “Statutory Disqualification” guidelines, an individual is subject to disqualification from associating with a FINRA member firm if they have been convicted of a felony or a securities-related misdemeanor within the past 10 years. A conviction for a securities-related misdemeanor 9 years ago falls within the 10-year disqualification period and would bar the individual from association.
-
Question 3 of 75
3. Question
A ‘stop order’ is used to:
Correct
A stop order is designed to limit an investor’s loss on a position by triggering a sale if the price falls to a predetermined level.
Incorrect
A stop order is designed to limit an investor’s loss on a position by triggering a sale if the price falls to a predetermined level.
-
Question 4 of 75
4. Question
The Federal Reserve’s open market operations primarily involve:
Correct
The Federal Reserve conducts open market operations by buying and selling government securities to influence the money supply and interest rates.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve conducts open market operations by buying and selling government securities to influence the money supply and interest rates.
-
Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A customer sells 100 shares of common stock on Monday at $45 per share. On Tuesday, the corporation declares a $2 per share cash dividend with a record date of Thursday and a payable date of the following Monday. When will the trade settle and who receives the dividend?
Correct
In regular-way settlement, equity trades settle in two business days (T+2). For dividend eligibility, what matters is who is the holder of record on the record date. In this case, the trade settles Wednesday, making the buyer the holder of record for Thursday’s record date. Therefore, the buyer is entitled to the dividend. The payable date (when the dividend is actually pai doesn’t affect who receives it.
Incorrect
In regular-way settlement, equity trades settle in two business days (T+2). For dividend eligibility, what matters is who is the holder of record on the record date. In this case, the trade settles Wednesday, making the buyer the holder of record for Thursday’s record date. Therefore, the buyer is entitled to the dividend. The payable date (when the dividend is actually pai doesn’t affect who receives it.
-
Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Which of the following best describes the efficient market hypothesis?
Correct
The efficient market hypothesis posits that all available information is already reflected in stock prices, making it difficult for investors to consistently achieve higher returns than the overall market through stock selection or market timing. It does not claim that markets are always efficient or that securities are always correctly priced, nor does it dismiss the potential for anomalies or inefficiencies.
Incorrect
The efficient market hypothesis posits that all available information is already reflected in stock prices, making it difficult for investors to consistently achieve higher returns than the overall market through stock selection or market timing. It does not claim that markets are always efficient or that securities are always correctly priced, nor does it dismiss the potential for anomalies or inefficiencies.
-
Question 7 of 75
7. Question
A bond with a rating of ‘BB’ by Standard & Poor’s is considered:
Correct
A ‘BB’ rating by Standard & Poor’s classifies the bond as speculative or junk grade, indicating higher risk compared to investment-grade bonds.
Incorrect
A ‘BB’ rating by Standard & Poor’s classifies the bond as speculative or junk grade, indicating higher risk compared to investment-grade bonds.
-
Question 8 of 75
8. Question
Which type of order instructs a broker to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price?
Correct
A market order directs the broker to execute the buy or sell transaction immediately at the best available current price.
Incorrect
A market order directs the broker to execute the buy or sell transaction immediately at the best available current price.
-
Question 9 of 75
9. Question
What is the main purpose of a prospectus?
Correct
A prospectus provides essential details about an investment, ensuring transparency for potential investors.
Incorrect
A prospectus provides essential details about an investment, ensuring transparency for potential investors.
-
Question 10 of 75
10. Question
What is the cost basis of an inherited mutual fund?
Correct
When mutual funds are inherited, the cost basis is adjusted to the NAV of the shares at the date of death, known as a step-up in basis.
Incorrect
When mutual funds are inherited, the cost basis is adjusted to the NAV of the shares at the date of death, known as a step-up in basis.
-
Question 11 of 75
11. Question
Which economic indicator is considered a lagging indicator?
Correct
Lagging indicators reflect historical data and are used to confirm economic trends.
Incorrect
Lagging indicators reflect historical data and are used to confirm economic trends.
-
Question 12 of 75
12. Question
Which of the following best describes a market order?
Correct
A market order is an instruction to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price.
Incorrect
A market order is an instruction to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price.
-
Question 13 of 75
13. Question
All of the following investment companies carry investment risk to the holder EXCEPT:
Correct
A Fixed Unit Investment Trust (UIT) is structured to hold a fixed portfolio of securities for a set period. Unlike mutual funds or variable UITs, it does not actively trade its holdings, reducing management risk. Once the portfolio is created, it remains unchanged, and investors receive a proportional share of the earnings from the assets. Therefore, Fixed UITs carry less investment risk compared to the others.
Incorrect
A Fixed Unit Investment Trust (UIT) is structured to hold a fixed portfolio of securities for a set period. Unlike mutual funds or variable UITs, it does not actively trade its holdings, reducing management risk. Once the portfolio is created, it remains unchanged, and investors receive a proportional share of the earnings from the assets. Therefore, Fixed UITs carry less investment risk compared to the others.
-
Question 14 of 75
14. Question
An investor goes long 1 JPM Apr 85 call at $3 when the market price of JPM is $78. How far is the option “out of the money?”
Correct
To determine how far the call option is out of the money, you compare the strike price of the option to the current market price of the underlying asset. The strike price is $85, and the current market price is $78. The option is out of the money by $7 ($85 – $78).
Incorrect
To determine how far the call option is out of the money, you compare the strike price of the option to the current market price of the underlying asset. The strike price is $85, and the current market price is $78. The option is out of the money by $7 ($85 – $78).
-
Question 15 of 75
15. Question
Broker-dealer ABC seeks to underwrite a municipal securities offering by a local town in which the mayor is currently seeking re-election. A municipal finance professional who resides in the town and works for ABC contributed $200 to the mayor’s re-election campaign 13 months ago. If the employee wants to support the campaign further without impacting the municipal securities business of the firm, he is permitted to make an additional contribution of up to what amount?
Correct
Under MSRB Rule G-37, municipal finance professionals can contribute up to $250 per election cycle to officials for whom they can vote. In this case, $200 has already been contributed, leaving room for an additional $50.
Incorrect
Under MSRB Rule G-37, municipal finance professionals can contribute up to $250 per election cycle to officials for whom they can vote. In this case, $200 has already been contributed, leaving room for an additional $50.
-
Question 16 of 75
16. Question
What is the primary function of the Federal Reserve’s open market operations?
Correct
The Federal Reserve’s open market operations involve buying and selling government securities to expand or contract the money supply, thereby influencing interest rates and overall economic activity. Setting the discount rate is another tool of the Federal Reserve, regulating the stock market is the role of the SEC, and insuring bank deposits is the function of the FDIC.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve’s open market operations involve buying and selling government securities to expand or contract the money supply, thereby influencing interest rates and overall economic activity. Setting the discount rate is another tool of the Federal Reserve, regulating the stock market is the role of the SEC, and insuring bank deposits is the function of the FDIC.
-
Question 17 of 75
17. Question
At the time of issuance, which of the following securities normally has the longest period to expiration?
Correct
Warrants typically have longer expiration periods compared to rights, options, or repurchase agreements, sometimes lasting years.
Incorrect
Warrants typically have longer expiration periods compared to rights, options, or repurchase agreements, sometimes lasting years.
-
Question 18 of 75
18. Question
A company announces a tender offer to buy a maximum of 1 million shares at $10 per share. An investor tenders 1,000 shares, but only 900,000 shares are tendered in total. How many shares will the company purchase from this investor?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 19 of 75
19. Question
Failing to make a customer aware of an upcoming quantity discount available through a mutual fund is:
Correct
Breakpoint sales occur when the representative fails to make a customer aware of the upcoming breakpoint schedule (usually to earn a higher commission, which is a conflict of interest and a violation of fiduciary duty). This is prohibited. Selling away is a different prohibited practice that occurs when a representative sells something that is not on the broker-dealer’s approved list in order to turn a profit for the representative.
Incorrect
Breakpoint sales occur when the representative fails to make a customer aware of the upcoming breakpoint schedule (usually to earn a higher commission, which is a conflict of interest and a violation of fiduciary duty). This is prohibited. Selling away is a different prohibited practice that occurs when a representative sells something that is not on the broker-dealer’s approved list in order to turn a profit for the representative.
-
Question 20 of 75
20. Question
What is the primary difference between a traditional IRA and a Roth IRA?
Correct
With a Traditional IRA, contributions are often tax-deductible up front, and then you pay taxes when you withdraw the funds in retirement.
With a Roth IRA, you contribute after-tax dollars, but you get to withdraw both your contributions and any earnings completely tax-free in retirement (assuming you meet certain requirements)
Incorrect
With a Traditional IRA, contributions are often tax-deductible up front, and then you pay taxes when you withdraw the funds in retirement.
With a Roth IRA, you contribute after-tax dollars, but you get to withdraw both your contributions and any earnings completely tax-free in retirement (assuming you meet certain requirements)
-
Question 21 of 75
21. Question
What document is given to an investor who purchases a municipal bond?
Correct
Municipal bonds are exempt securities and therefore are not required to deliver a prospectus to customers. Instead, most municipalities will deliver an official statement that functions in a similar manner to a prospectus.
Incorrect
Municipal bonds are exempt securities and therefore are not required to deliver a prospectus to customers. Instead, most municipalities will deliver an official statement that functions in a similar manner to a prospectus.
-
Question 22 of 75
22. Question
The ‘ex-dividend date’ is important because:
Correct
The ex-dividend date determines who is eligible to receive the declared dividend; investors who purchase the stock on or after this date are not entitled to the dividend.
Incorrect
The ex-dividend date determines who is eligible to receive the declared dividend; investors who purchase the stock on or after this date are not entitled to the dividend.
-
Question 23 of 75
23. Question
A ‘no-load’ mutual fund is characterized by:
Correct
A no-load mutual fund does not charge sales commissions or fees when investors buy or sell shares.
Incorrect
A no-load mutual fund does not charge sales commissions or fees when investors buy or sell shares.
-
Question 24 of 75
24. Question
The term ‘blue sky laws’ refers to:
Correct
Blue sky laws’ are state securities regulations aimed at protecting investors from fraudulent sales practices and securities offerings.
Incorrect
Blue sky laws’ are state securities regulations aimed at protecting investors from fraudulent sales practices and securities offerings.
-
Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Which of the following products is considered a cheaper alternative to a mutual fund?
Correct
Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are similar to mutual funds but are passively managed, resulting in lower costs. Mutual funds are actively managed and are not tax-advantaged. ETNs are a form of debt product. LGIPs are local government investment pools. REITs are real estate investment trusts.
Incorrect
Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are similar to mutual funds but are passively managed, resulting in lower costs. Mutual funds are actively managed and are not tax-advantaged. ETNs are a form of debt product. LGIPs are local government investment pools. REITs are real estate investment trusts.
-
Question 26 of 75
26. Question
Which of the following is true about Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)?
Correct
TIPS have a principal value that adjusts based on changes in the Consumer Price Index, providing protection against inflation.
Incorrect
TIPS have a principal value that adjusts based on changes in the Consumer Price Index, providing protection against inflation.
-
Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which of the following is considered a lagging economic indicator?
Correct
The average duration of unemployment is considered a lagging economic indicator because it reflects past economic conditions. In contrast, average weekly initial claims for unemployment insurance and building permits for new private housing units are leading indicators
Incorrect
The average duration of unemployment is considered a lagging economic indicator because it reflects past economic conditions. In contrast, average weekly initial claims for unemployment insurance and building permits for new private housing units are leading indicators
-
Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Which of the following is an example of a derivative security?
Correct
A stock option is a derivative security, as its value is derived from the value of an underlying stock.
Incorrect
A stock option is a derivative security, as its value is derived from the value of an underlying stock.
-
Question 29 of 75
29. Question
UTMA accounts are opened under the tax ID of the:
Correct
UTMA accounts are custodial accounts that use the minor’s tax ID, even though the custodian manages the account.
Incorrect
UTMA accounts are custodial accounts that use the minor’s tax ID, even though the custodian manages the account.
-
Question 30 of 75
30. Question
Which of the following is considered a self-regulatory organization (SRO) in the securities industry?
Correct
FINRA is an SRO responsible for regulating brokerage firms and exchange markets.
Incorrect
FINRA is an SRO responsible for regulating brokerage firms and exchange markets.
-
Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Which of the following is considered a money market instrument?
Correct
Money market instruments are short-term securities, such as Treasury bills, with high liquidity.
Incorrect
Money market instruments are short-term securities, such as Treasury bills, with high liquidity.
-
Question 32 of 75
32. Question
What is a characteristic of a Roth IRA?
Correct
Qualified distributions from a Roth IRA are tax-free, provided certain conditions are met.
Incorrect
Qualified distributions from a Roth IRA are tax-free, provided certain conditions are met.
-
Question 33 of 75
33. Question
What is the primary purpose of a mutual fund’s prospectus?
Correct
A mutual fund’s prospectus provides investors with comprehensive information about the fund’s objectives, investment strategies, risks, fees, and other pertinent details to make informed investment decisions. While it may include past performance data, its primary purpose is informational rather than promotional.
Incorrect
A mutual fund’s prospectus provides investors with comprehensive information about the fund’s objectives, investment strategies, risks, fees, and other pertinent details to make informed investment decisions. While it may include past performance data, its primary purpose is informational rather than promotional.
-
Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Which of the following securities is most affected by interest rate risk?
Correct
Long-term bonds are most affected by interest rate risk because their prices are more sensitive to changes in interest rates over time.
Incorrect
Long-term bonds are most affected by interest rate risk because their prices are more sensitive to changes in interest rates over time.
-
Question 35 of 75
35. Question
A bond with a face value of $1,000 is quoted at 102. This means the bond is trading at:
Correct
A bond quoted at 102 is trading at 102% of its face value. Therefore, 102% of $1,000 equals $1,020.
Incorrect
A bond quoted at 102 is trading at 102% of its face value. Therefore, 102% of $1,000 equals $1,020.
-
Question 36 of 75
36. Question
What is the definition of a market maker?
Correct
A market maker is a firm or individual that provides liquidity to the market by actively quoting buy and sell prices for securities.
Incorrect
A market maker is a firm or individual that provides liquidity to the market by actively quoting buy and sell prices for securities.
-
Question 37 of 75
37. Question
What is the primary role of the Federal Reserve?
Correct
The Federal Reserve manages the nation’s monetary policy to achieve stable prices and maximum employment.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve manages the nation’s monetary policy to achieve stable prices and maximum employment.
-
Question 38 of 75
38. Question
In a period of rising interest rates, which type of bond is likely to experience the greatest price decline?
Correct
Long-term bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes and will experience greater price declines when interest rates rise compared to short-term or intermediate-term bonds. Floating-rate bonds have interest rates that adjust periodically, making them less susceptible to interest rate risk.
Incorrect
Long-term bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes and will experience greater price declines when interest rates rise compared to short-term or intermediate-term bonds. Floating-rate bonds have interest rates that adjust periodically, making them less susceptible to interest rate risk.
-
Question 39 of 75
39. Question
Which of the following investment risks is the greatest risk in a variable life insurance policy?
Correct
Variable life insurance policies invest in market-linked subaccounts. The greatest risk in these policies is market risk, as their cash value and death benefits depend on the market’s performance.
Incorrect
Variable life insurance policies invest in market-linked subaccounts. The greatest risk in these policies is market risk, as their cash value and death benefits depend on the market’s performance.
-
Question 40 of 75
40. Question
Which of the following best describes a ‘no-load’ mutual fund?
Correct
A ‘no-load’ mutual fund does not charge sales commissions, allowing investors to purchase shares without a sales charge.
Incorrect
A ‘no-load’ mutual fund does not charge sales commissions, allowing investors to purchase shares without a sales charge.
-
Question 41 of 75
41. Question
‘Margin trading’ refers to:
Correct
Margin trading involves purchasing securities using funds borrowed from a broker, allowing investors to leverage their positions.
Incorrect
Margin trading involves purchasing securities using funds borrowed from a broker, allowing investors to leverage their positions.
-
Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Which of the following is a feature of preferred stock?
Correct
Preferred stockholders have priority over common stockholders in receiving dividends, but typically do not have voting rights.
Incorrect
Preferred stockholders have priority over common stockholders in receiving dividends, but typically do not have voting rights.
-
Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Which of the following securities is a form of T-bond where the coupon and principal payments are detached from the bond itself and sold separately?
Correct
STRIPS stands for separate trading of registered interest and principal of securities. Essentially, someone like a corporation buys Treasury bonds, strips the payments from the bonds, and then sells those individually as STRIPS.
Incorrect
STRIPS stands for separate trading of registered interest and principal of securities. Essentially, someone like a corporation buys Treasury bonds, strips the payments from the bonds, and then sells those individually as STRIPS.
-
Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Which of the following would be considered the broadest market index?
Correct
The Wilshire 5000 is one of the largest indices and is considered a total stock market index. The Value Line Index also covers a large number of companies, but it is not as comprehensive as the Wilshire 5000.
Incorrect
The Wilshire 5000 is one of the largest indices and is considered a total stock market index. The Value Line Index also covers a large number of companies, but it is not as comprehensive as the Wilshire 5000.
-
Question 45 of 75
45. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Securities Act of 1933?
Correct
The Securities Act of 1933 aims to ensure full disclosure of material information in securities offerings, protecting investors from fraud.
Incorrect
The Securities Act of 1933 aims to ensure full disclosure of material information in securities offerings, protecting investors from fraud.
-
Question 46 of 75
46. Question
What risk do Direct Participation Programs (DPPs) have that makes it harder for the investor to retrieve their funds?
Correct
Partnerships are notorious for being very illiquid, which is one of the reasons they are generally only bought by sophisticated investors
Incorrect
Partnerships are notorious for being very illiquid, which is one of the reasons they are generally only bought by sophisticated investors
-
Question 47 of 75
47. Question
The ‘Securities Exchange Act of 1934’ primarily regulates:
Correct
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulates the secondary trading of securities, overseeing activities of securities exchanges and broker-dealers.
Incorrect
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulates the secondary trading of securities, overseeing activities of securities exchanges and broker-dealers.
-
Question 48 of 75
48. Question
An investor owns 100 shares of a company’s stock. The company declares a 10% stock dividend. How many shares will the investor own after the dividend is distributed?
Correct
A 10% stock dividend means the investor will receive an additional 10 shares (10% of 100), resulting in a total of 110 shares.
Incorrect
A 10% stock dividend means the investor will receive an additional 10 shares (10% of 100), resulting in a total of 110 shares.
-
Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Which of the following securities is backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government?
Correct
Treasury bonds are debt securities issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury and are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
Incorrect
Treasury bonds are debt securities issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury and are backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
-
Question 50 of 75
50. Question
A decline in the gross domestic product (GDP) must last for at least how many quarters to be considered a recession?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 51 of 75
51. Question
All of the following are types of economic theories EXCEPT:
Correct
All of the answer options are forms of economic theory except for the Efficient Market Hypothesis, which is a theory for the stock market exclusively.
Incorrect
All of the answer options are forms of economic theory except for the Efficient Market Hypothesis, which is a theory for the stock market exclusively.
-
Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Roth IRA?
Correct
In a Roth IRA, qualified distributions are tax-free, and contributions are made with after-tax dollars.
Incorrect
In a Roth IRA, qualified distributions are tax-free, and contributions are made with after-tax dollars.
-
Question 53 of 75
53. Question
In a period of rising interest rates, which of the following is likely to occur?
Correct
In a period of rising interest rates, bond prices typically decrease because existing bonds with lower interest rates become less attractive compared to new issues offering higher rates.
Incorrect
In a period of rising interest rates, bond prices typically decrease because existing bonds with lower interest rates become less attractive compared to new issues offering higher rates.
-
Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a closed-end fund?
Correct
Closed-end funds issue a fixed number of shares that are traded on the secondary market. Unlike open-end funds, they do not continuously offer new shares or redeem shares at net asset value.
Incorrect
Closed-end funds issue a fixed number of shares that are traded on the secondary market. Unlike open-end funds, they do not continuously offer new shares or redeem shares at net asset value.
-
Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Which of the following economic factors typically causes bond prices to fall and yields to rise?
Correct
When inflation expectations rise, investors typically demand higher yields to maintain real returns (returns after inflation). This causes existing bond prices to fall as their fixed coupon payments become less valuable in real terms. The relationship between bond prices and yields is inverse – when one rises, the other falls. This fundamental relationship is influenced by various economic factors, with inflation being one of the most direct and significant factors.
Incorrect
When inflation expectations rise, investors typically demand higher yields to maintain real returns (returns after inflation). This causes existing bond prices to fall as their fixed coupon payments become less valuable in real terms. The relationship between bond prices and yields is inverse – when one rises, the other falls. This fundamental relationship is influenced by various economic factors, with inflation being one of the most direct and significant factors.
-
Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Which of the following securities is exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933?
Correct
Municipal bonds are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. Corporate bonds, common stock, and preferred stock are typically subject to registration requirements.
Incorrect
Municipal bonds are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. Corporate bonds, common stock, and preferred stock are typically subject to registration requirements.
-
Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Which type of investment company issues redeemable shares
Correct
Mutual funds issue redeemable shares, allowing investors to sell them back to the fund at the current Net Asset Value (NAV).
Incorrect
Mutual funds issue redeemable shares, allowing investors to sell them back to the fund at the current Net Asset Value (NAV).
-
Question 58 of 75
58. Question
What does a bond’s yield represent?
Correct
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments
Incorrect
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments
-
Question 59 of 75
59. Question
In the over-the-counter market, the term ‘spread’ refers to the difference between:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 60 of 75
60. Question
What does the Securities Act of 1933 regulate?
Correct
The Securities Act of 1933 governs the issuance of new securities in the primary market.
Incorrect
The Securities Act of 1933 governs the issuance of new securities in the primary market.
-
Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Stability in the value of a debt portfolio is greatest when:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Which of the following best describes a debenture?
Correct
A debenture is an unsecured debt instrument backed solely by the issuer’s creditworthiness, not by any collateral.
Incorrect
A debenture is an unsecured debt instrument backed solely by the issuer’s creditworthiness, not by any collateral.
-
Question 63 of 75
63. Question
What is the primary function of a clearinghouse in the securities industry?
Correct
A clearinghouse acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers in financial markets, ensuring the proper transfer of securities and funds.
Incorrect
A clearinghouse acts as an intermediary between buyers and sellers in financial markets, ensuring the proper transfer of securities and funds.
-
Question 64 of 75
64. Question
An investor owns a bond that is callable. Which of the following is true regarding the call feature?
Correct
A callable bond allows the issuer to redeem the bond before its maturity date, typically at a specified call price. This feature is advantageous to issuers, especially if interest rates decline, enabling them to refinance debt at lower rates.
Incorrect
A callable bond allows the issuer to redeem the bond before its maturity date, typically at a specified call price. This feature is advantageous to issuers, especially if interest rates decline, enabling them to refinance debt at lower rates.
-
Question 65 of 75
65. Question
The ‘Net Asset Value (NAV)’ of a mutual fund is calculated by:
Correct
The NAV of a mutual fund is determined by subtracting the fund’s liabilities from its total assets and dividing the result by the number of outstanding shares.
Incorrect
The NAV of a mutual fund is determined by subtracting the fund’s liabilities from its total assets and dividing the result by the number of outstanding shares.
-
Question 66 of 75
66. Question
When market interest rates go up, a bond’s:
Correct
When interest rates go up, bond prices go down. When bond prices go down, yields go up. Therefore, interest rates have an inverse correlation to bond prices and a positive correlation with yields. However, the nominal yield on a bond does not change as it is the stated rate of return. Yield to maturity, yield to call, and current yield do change.
Incorrect
When interest rates go up, bond prices go down. When bond prices go down, yields go up. Therefore, interest rates have an inverse correlation to bond prices and a positive correlation with yields. However, the nominal yield on a bond does not change as it is the stated rate of return. Yield to maturity, yield to call, and current yield do change.
-
Question 67 of 75
67. Question
What is the maximum contribution limit for an individual under 50 years old to a traditional IRA for the tax year 2025?
Correct
As of 2025, the maximum contribution limit for individuals under 50 to a traditional IRA is $6,500.
Incorrect
As of 2025, the maximum contribution limit for individuals under 50 to a traditional IRA is $6,500.
-
Question 68 of 75
68. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Federal Reserve’s open market operations?
Correct
The Federal Reserve conducts open market operations to control the money supply and influence short-term interest rates.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve conducts open market operations to control the money supply and influence short-term interest rates.
-
Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A company announces a 20% stock dividend for shareholders. A customer holds 1,000 shares at $50 each. What is the new price and number of shares following the dividend?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 70 of 75
70. Question
Which of the following actions is prohibited under FINRA rules?
Correct
Engaging in insider trading, which involves trading based on non-public, material information, is prohibited under FINRA rules.
Incorrect
Engaging in insider trading, which involves trading based on non-public, material information, is prohibited under FINRA rules.
-
Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Which of the following activities would be considered front-running by a registered representative?
Correct
Front-running occurs when a trader uses non-public information about pending customer orders to trade ahead for personal benefit. In this case, trading in a personal account before executing a large institutional order that could move the market price is a clear violation. It breaches the duty to put client interests first and misuses confidential information for personal gain. This differs from legitimate trading based on public information or proper order execution. Front-running is a serious violation that can result in disciplinary action, fines, and potential criminal charges.
Incorrect
Front-running occurs when a trader uses non-public information about pending customer orders to trade ahead for personal benefit. In this case, trading in a personal account before executing a large institutional order that could move the market price is a clear violation. It breaches the duty to put client interests first and misuses confidential information for personal gain. This differs from legitimate trading based on public information or proper order execution. Front-running is a serious violation that can result in disciplinary action, fines, and potential criminal charges.
-
Question 72 of 75
72. Question
Which of the following best describes a ‘market order’?
Correct
A market order is an instruction to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price.
Incorrect
A market order is an instruction to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price.
-
Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A bond with a rating of ‘BB’ by Standard & Poor’s is considered:
Correct
A ‘BB’ rating by Standard & Poor’s classifies the bond as speculative grade, indicating higher risk compared to investment-grade bonds.
Incorrect
A ‘BB’ rating by Standard & Poor’s classifies the bond as speculative grade, indicating higher risk compared to investment-grade bonds.
-
Question 74 of 75
74. Question
In a period of economic expansion, which of the following is most likely to occur?
Correct
During economic expansion, interest rates often rise as demand for credit increases and the Federal Reserve may tighten monetary policy to prevent overheating.
Incorrect
During economic expansion, interest rates often rise as demand for credit increases and the Federal Reserve may tighten monetary policy to prevent overheating.
-
Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a ‘callable bond’?
Correct
A callable bond allows the issuer to redeem the bond before its scheduled maturity date, typically at a specified call price.
Incorrect
A callable bond allows the issuer to redeem the bond before its scheduled maturity date, typically at a specified call price.