The free SIE mock exam consists of 75 multiple-choice items, and each item consists of four answer choices. Each candidate’s exam includes 10 additional, unidentified pretest items that do not contribute toward the candidate’s score. The pretest items are randomly distributed throughout the exam. Therefore, each candidate’s exam consists of a total of 85 items (75 scored and 10 unscored). There is no penalty for guessing. Therefore, candidates should attempt to answer all items. Candidates will be allowed 1 hour and 45 minutes to complete the SIE exam.
SIE Mock Exam 2 – Securities Industry Essentials
SIE Mock Exam 2
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SIE Mock Exam 2
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Question 1 of 75
1. Question
Which of the following considerations should a registered representative explain to a customer when recommending a 529 savings plan?
Correct
Contributions to 529 plans may be deductible from state taxes, depending on the state.
529 savings plans may offer state tax deductions for contributions, but they are not deductible at the federal level. These plans have no income restrictions, and beneficiaries do not gain control over the funds at the age of majority.Incorrect
Contributions to 529 plans may be deductible from state taxes, depending on the state.
529 savings plans may offer state tax deductions for contributions, but they are not deductible at the federal level. These plans have no income restrictions, and beneficiaries do not gain control over the funds at the age of majority. -
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
When a broker-dealer charges a commission on a securities transaction, it has acted as:
Correct
A broker-dealer acting as an agent charges a commission to facilitate transactions for clients.
Incorrect
A broker-dealer acting as an agent charges a commission to facilitate transactions for clients.
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Question 3 of 75
3. Question
A broker-dealer is permitted to accept payment for a new issue from a new customer when the:
Correct
A broker-dealer can only accept payment for a new issue once the registration statement has been declared effective by the SEC. The red herring is a preliminary prospectus, but payment cannot be accepted until the registration is effective. A preliminary prospectus amendment does not authorize payment acceptance. Sales are prohibited during the cooling-off period.
Incorrect
A broker-dealer can only accept payment for a new issue once the registration statement has been declared effective by the SEC. The red herring is a preliminary prospectus, but payment cannot be accepted until the registration is effective. A preliminary prospectus amendment does not authorize payment acceptance. Sales are prohibited during the cooling-off period.
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Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Which of the following actions is required of a broker-dealer’s anti-money laundering (AML) program?
Correct
A broker-dealer’s anti-money laundering (AML) program requires designating an AML compliance officer, filing the AML program with FINRA, and conducting background checks of all employees.
A broker-dealer’s AML program must identify to regulators the employees responsible for CTRs. This is crucial for maintaining clear lines of responsibility and accountability in monitoring and reporting suspicious activities. The other options, while they may be good practices, are not specifically required under AML regulations.
Incorrect
A broker-dealer’s anti-money laundering (AML) program requires designating an AML compliance officer, filing the AML program with FINRA, and conducting background checks of all employees.
A broker-dealer’s AML program must identify to regulators the employees responsible for CTRs. This is crucial for maintaining clear lines of responsibility and accountability in monitoring and reporting suspicious activities. The other options, while they may be good practices, are not specifically required under AML regulations.
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Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A transaction in which a writer covers a position by purchasing an option is called:
Correct
A closing purchase is used by an option writer to buy back an option they previously sold, thereby closing the short position.
Incorrect
A closing purchase is used by an option writer to buy back an option they previously sold, thereby closing the short position.
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Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Under normal circumstances, a customer’s letter of intent on a mutual fund purchase is valid for what maximum period of time?
Correct
A letter of intent for mutual fund purchases is valid for up to 13 months, allowing investors to qualify for reduced sales charges.
Incorrect
A letter of intent for mutual fund purchases is valid for up to 13 months, allowing investors to qualify for reduced sales charges.
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Question 7 of 75
7. Question
What is the main purpose of a prospectus?
Correct
A prospectus provides essential details about an investment, ensuring transparency for potential investors.
Incorrect
A prospectus provides essential details about an investment, ensuring transparency for potential investors.
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Question 8 of 75
8. Question
Which of the following represents the effect of a stock split?
Correct
A stock split increases the number of shares outstanding, which decreases the price per share but does not change the total value of a stockholder’s holdings or their proportionate ownership.
Incorrect
A stock split increases the number of shares outstanding, which decreases the price per share but does not change the total value of a stockholder’s holdings or their proportionate ownership.
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Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Under the Securities Act of 1933, registration is required for which of the following securities?
Correct
ADRs, which represent shares in foreign companies, must be registered with the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933. Eurodollar bonds are issued and traded outside the U.S. and are exempt from SEC registration. Municipal securities and securities issued by the federal government are also exempt from registration under the 1933 Act.
Incorrect
ADRs, which represent shares in foreign companies, must be registered with the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933. Eurodollar bonds are issued and traded outside the U.S. and are exempt from SEC registration. Municipal securities and securities issued by the federal government are also exempt from registration under the 1933 Act.
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Question 10 of 75
10. Question
A married couple who earned income that exceeded $300,000 in each of the prior two years and reasonably expects the same for the current year is:
Correct
An accredited investor meets specific income or net worth criteria, which this couple fulfills.
Incorrect
An accredited investor meets specific income or net worth criteria, which this couple fulfills.
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Question 11 of 75
11. Question
Which of the following investments are generally traded according to their average life rather than their stated maturity dates?
Correct
Asset-backed securities are traded according to their average life, which is influenced by the repayment rates of the underlying assets.
Incorrect
Asset-backed securities are traded according to their average life, which is influenced by the repayment rates of the underlying assets.
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Question 12 of 75
12. Question
An associated person who is not a registered representative is permitted to engage in which of the following activities?
Correct
Associated persons who are not registered representatives are limited to administrative tasks, such as providing account opening forms. Investment-related activities are restricted to registered representatives.
Incorrect
Associated persons who are not registered representatives are limited to administrative tasks, such as providing account opening forms. Investment-related activities are restricted to registered representatives.
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Question 13 of 75
13. Question
Blue-sky laws are regulated by which of the following entities?
Correct
Blue-sky laws are state-level securities regulations designed to protect investors from fraud, enforced by state securities regulators.
Incorrect
Blue-sky laws are state-level securities regulations designed to protect investors from fraud, enforced by state securities regulators.
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Question 14 of 75
14. Question
What does a bond’s yield represent?
Correct
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments.
Incorrect
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments.
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Question 15 of 75
15. Question
What does a bond’s yield represent?
Correct
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments.
Incorrect
Bond yield reflects the annualized return based on current market price and coupon payments.
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Question 16 of 75
16. Question
The last transaction in XYZ 5.50s 2030 was at 102. This bond is selling at:
Correct
Bonds are considered to be selling at a premium when their price is above 100. In this case, the bond is priced at 102, indicating a premium.
Incorrect
Bonds are considered to be selling at a premium when their price is above 100. In this case, the bond is priced at 102, indicating a premium.
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Question 17 of 75
17. Question
A customer is an officer of a company that is involved in some significant changes. All of the following items are examples of corporate affairs that could be considered insider information if the customer shares them with his registered representative, except:
Correct
Declared stock dividends are public information and not classified as insider information. Other items listed are examples of material non-public information.
Incorrect
Declared stock dividends are public information and not classified as insider information. Other items listed are examples of material non-public information.
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Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Direct participation programs (DPPs) provide:
Correct
DPPs provide investors with access to non-correlated asset classes, offering diversification but often lacking liquidity.
Incorrect
DPPs provide investors with access to non-correlated asset classes, offering diversification but often lacking liquidity.
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Question 19 of 75
19. Question
Which of the following actions violates FINRA rules regarding selling away?
Correct
Engaging in private securities transactions without written prior consent of the employing broker-dealer is a violation of FINRA rules regarding selling away. Recommending another BD’s services, sharing commissions within the same BD, and advising on mutual fund purchases are permissible activities when done properly.
Incorrect
Engaging in private securities transactions without written prior consent of the employing broker-dealer is a violation of FINRA rules regarding selling away. Recommending another BD’s services, sharing commissions within the same BD, and advising on mutual fund purchases are permissible activities when done properly.
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Question 20 of 75
20. Question
All of the following risks apply to both foreign and domestic debt instruments except:
Correct
Exchange rate risk is unique to foreign instruments due to currency fluctuations.
Incorrect
Exchange rate risk is unique to foreign instruments due to currency fluctuations.
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Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which of the following products is adversely impacted if the issuer’s credit rating is downgraded?
Correct
Exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are unsecured debt instruments whose value depends on the issuer’s creditworthiness. A credit rating downgrade can negatively impact the value of ETNs.
Incorrect
Exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are unsecured debt instruments whose value depends on the issuer’s creditworthiness. A credit rating downgrade can negatively impact the value of ETNs.
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Question 22 of 75
22. Question
Which of the following scenarios is considered a prohibited practice under FINRA rules?
Correct
Failing to disclose a conflict of interest when recommending a proprietary product is a violation of FINRA rules. Representatives must prioritize client interests and disclose any conflicts of interest.
Incorrect
Failing to disclose a conflict of interest when recommending a proprietary product is a violation of FINRA rules. Representatives must prioritize client interests and disclose any conflicts of interest.
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Question 23 of 75
23. Question
FinCEN accomplishes its mission to safeguard the financial system from the abuses of financial crime, including terrorist financing and money laundering, by enforcing:
Correct
FinCEN enforces the Bank Secrecy Act to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes, ensuring the integrity of the financial system.
Incorrect
FinCEN enforces the Bank Secrecy Act to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes, ensuring the integrity of the financial system.
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Question 24 of 75
24. Question
What is the main function of FINRA?
Correct
FINRA regulates broker-dealers to ensure fair and ethical practices.
Incorrect
FINRA regulates broker-dealers to ensure fair and ethical practices.
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Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Under FINRA rules, which of the following activities by a registered representative requires written notification to her firm?
Correct
FINRA Rule 3270 requires registered representatives to notify their firms in writing before engaging in any outside business activities, such as part-time work, to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and prevent conflicts of interest.
Incorrect
FINRA Rule 3270 requires registered representatives to notify their firms in writing before engaging in any outside business activities, such as part-time work, to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and prevent conflicts of interest.
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Question 26 of 75
26. Question
What is the main purpose of FINRA?
Correct
FINRA’s primary role is to regulate broker-dealers and protect investors by ensuring fair and ethical practices.
Incorrect
FINRA’s primary role is to regulate broker-dealers and protect investors by ensuring fair and ethical practices.
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Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Which of the following actions is required when a firm receives cash in excess of $10,000 from one customer in one business day?
Correct
Firms must file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) for cash transactions exceeding $10,000 in a single business day to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act.
Incorrect
Firms must file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) for cash transactions exceeding $10,000 in a single business day to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act.
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Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Which type of investment is most exposed to inflation risk?
Correct
Fixed-rate bonds are susceptible to inflation risk because their returns do not adjust for rising prices.
Incorrect
Fixed-rate bonds are susceptible to inflation risk because their returns do not adjust for rising prices.
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Question 29 of 75
29. Question
What is front-running in trading?
Correct
Front-running is unethical and involves placing a trade based on knowledge of a customer’s pending order.
Incorrect
Front-running is unethical and involves placing a trade based on knowledge of a customer’s pending order.
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Question 30 of 75
30. Question
Which of the following activities would be considered front-running by a registered representative?
Correct
Front-running occurs when a trader uses non-public information about pending customer orders to trade ahead for personal benefit. In this case, trading in a personal account before executing a large institutional order that could move the market price is a clear violation. It breaches the duty to put client interests first and misuses confidential information for personal gain. This differs from legitimate trading based on public information or proper order execution. Front-running is a serious violation that can result in disciplinary action, fines, and potential criminal charges.
Incorrect
Front-running occurs when a trader uses non-public information about pending customer orders to trade ahead for personal benefit. In this case, trading in a personal account before executing a large institutional order that could move the market price is a clear violation. It breaches the duty to put client interests first and misuses confidential information for personal gain. This differs from legitimate trading based on public information or proper order execution. Front-running is a serious violation that can result in disciplinary action, fines, and potential criminal charges.
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Question 31 of 75
31. Question
What is a high-yield bond commonly referred to as?
Correct
High-yield bonds, or junk bonds, offer higher returns but come with greater credit risk.
Incorrect
High-yield bonds, or junk bonds, offer higher returns but come with greater credit risk.
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Question 32 of 75
32. Question
An investor owns 100 shares of XYZ common stock at the current market price of $50 per share. If XYZ conducts a 1-for-2 reverse stock split, the investor’s post-split stock position will be:
Correct
In a 1-for-2 reverse stock split, the total number of shares owned is halved, and the price per share is doubled. The investor will own 50 shares at $100 each, maintaining the same total value of $5,000.
Incorrect
In a 1-for-2 reverse stock split, the total number of shares owned is halved, and the price per share is doubled. The investor will own 50 shares at $100 each, maintaining the same total value of $5,000.
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Question 33 of 75
33. Question
Which of the following outcomes are possible for the writer of a covered call option?
Correct
In a covered call position, the writer owns the underlying stock and sells someone the right to buy it at a specific price (strike price). Maximum profit is limited to the premium received plus any appreciation up to the strike price. Maximum loss is limited to the stock’s purchase price minus the premium received. The ‘covered’ aspect (owning the stock) provides downside protection, while the obligation to sell at strike price caps upside potential.
Incorrect
In a covered call position, the writer owns the underlying stock and sells someone the right to buy it at a specific price (strike price). Maximum profit is limited to the premium received plus any appreciation up to the strike price. Maximum loss is limited to the stock’s purchase price minus the premium received. The ‘covered’ aspect (owning the stock) provides downside protection, while the obligation to sell at strike price caps upside potential.
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Question 34 of 75
34. Question
If a market maker posts a quote of 10.00 – 10.10 [25×10], which of the following actions is the market maker willing to take?
Correct
In a market maker’s quote, the format is bid price – ask price [bid size x ask size]. The market maker is willing to buy at the bid price and sell at the ask price. In this case, they will buy 2,500 shares at $10.00 and sell 1,000 shares at $10.10.
Incorrect
In a market maker’s quote, the format is bid price – ask price [bid size x ask size]. The market maker is willing to buy at the bid price and sell at the ask price. In this case, they will buy 2,500 shares at $10.00 and sell 1,000 shares at $10.10.
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Question 35 of 75
35. Question
A customer sells 100 shares of common stock on Monday at $45 per share. On Tuesday, the corporation declares a $2 per share cash dividend with a record date of Thursday and a payable date of the following Monday. When will the trade settle and who receives the dividend?
Correct
In regular-way settlement, equity trades settle in two business days (T+2). For dividend eligibility, what matters is who is the holder of record on the record date. In this case, the trade settles Wednesday, making the buyer the holder of record for Thursday’s record date. Therefore, the buyer is entitled to the dividend. The payable date (when the dividend is actually paid) doesn’t affect who receives it.
Incorrect
In regular-way settlement, equity trades settle in two business days (T+2). For dividend eligibility, what matters is who is the holder of record on the record date. In this case, the trade settles Wednesday, making the buyer the holder of record for Thursday’s record date. Therefore, the buyer is entitled to the dividend. The payable date (when the dividend is actually paid) doesn’t affect who receives it.
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Question 36 of 75
36. Question
Which of the following responses describes an advantage of index funds?
Correct
Index funds aim to replicate the performance of a specific index, resulting in lower management fees due to their passive management approach.
Incorrect
Index funds aim to replicate the performance of a specific index, resulting in lower management fees due to their passive management approach.
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Question 37 of 75
37. Question
Upon expiration, all in-the-money S&P 100 Index call options are settled by the delivery of which of the following?
Correct
Index options like the S&P 100 are cash-settled since it is not possible to deliver an index physically. Physical settlement through S&P 100 Index stocks or S&P ETF is not applicable to index options. Settlement through S&P 100 Index put options does not apply to call option settlements.
Incorrect
Index options like the S&P 100 are cash-settled since it is not possible to deliver an index physically. Physical settlement through S&P 100 Index stocks or S&P ETF is not applicable to index options. Settlement through S&P 100 Index put options does not apply to call option settlements.
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Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Which economic indicator is considered a lagging indicator?
Correct
Lagging indicators reflect historical data and are used to confirm economic trends.
Incorrect
Lagging indicators reflect historical data and are used to confirm economic trends.
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Question 39 of 75
39. Question
A member of a stock exchange responsible for providing liquidity in a security by being willing to buy and sell at all times is known as:
Correct
Market makers ensure liquidity in the markets by being willing to buy and sell securities at all times.
Incorrect
Market makers ensure liquidity in the markets by being willing to buy and sell securities at all times.
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Question 40 of 75
40. Question
At issue, which of the following debt securities mature in one year or less?
Correct
Money market instruments are short-term debt securities that mature in one year or less, such as Treasury bills, commercial paper, and certificates of deposit. FNMA bonds and GNMA bonds are long-term securities typically used in mortgage-backed securities. Treasury notes are medium-term securities with maturities ranging from 2 to 10 years.
Incorrect
Money market instruments are short-term debt securities that mature in one year or less, such as Treasury bills, commercial paper, and certificates of deposit. FNMA bonds and GNMA bonds are long-term securities typically used in mortgage-backed securities. Treasury notes are medium-term securities with maturities ranging from 2 to 10 years.
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Question 41 of 75
41. Question
Which of the following is considered a money market instrument?
Correct
Money market instruments are short-term securities, such as Treasury bills, with high liquidity.
Incorrect
Money market instruments are short-term securities, such as Treasury bills, with high liquidity.
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Question 42 of 75
42. Question
No-load mutual funds may have lower expense ratios than load mutual funds for which of the following reasons?
Correct
No-load mutual funds are prohibited from charging 12b-1 fees exceeding 25 basis points, which often results in lower expense ratios compared to load funds.
Incorrect
No-load mutual funds are prohibited from charging 12b-1 fees exceeding 25 basis points, which often results in lower expense ratios compared to load funds.
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Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Under FINRA rules, noncash compensation connected with the sale of variable contracts includes all of the following items except:
Correct
Noncash compensation includes items such as gifts, meals, and lodging. Commissions are classified as cash compensation.
Incorrect
Noncash compensation includes items such as gifts, meals, and lodging. Commissions are classified as cash compensation.
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Question 44 of 75
44. Question
A registered representative is reviewing the following portfolio: – 30% ABC Energy Company – 30% XYZ Health Care Company – 30% Exchange-traded fund (tracks the S&P 500) – 10% Money market funds Which of the following risks is inherent in this portfolio?
Correct
Nonsystematic risk, or company-specific risk, arises from the performance of individual investments or sectors. This portfolio’s concentration in energy and healthcare exposes it to nonsystematic risk, which can be mitigated through further diversification.
Incorrect
Nonsystematic risk, or company-specific risk, arises from the performance of individual investments or sectors. This portfolio’s concentration in energy and healthcare exposes it to nonsystematic risk, which can be mitigated through further diversification.
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Question 45 of 75
45. Question
In which of the following situations is an employee of a public company permitted to trade upon information without violating insider trading laws?
Correct
Only information obtained from public or third-party sources, like analysts, can be traded upon legally.
Incorrect
Only information obtained from public or third-party sources, like analysts, can be traded upon legally.
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Question 46 of 75
46. Question
The redemption value of an open-end investment company’s shares is based on the:
Correct
Open-end funds calculate the redemption value using the NAV determined after the order is received, per forward pricing rules.
Incorrect
Open-end funds calculate the redemption value using the NAV determined after the order is received, per forward pricing rules.
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Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Roth 401(k) and Roth individual retirement account (IRA) plans share which of the following features?
Correct
Qualified distributions from both accounts are excluded from federal income tax.
Incorrect
Qualified distributions from both accounts are excluded from federal income tax.
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Question 48 of 75
48. Question
Regular way settlement on Treasury bonds is:
Correct
Regular way settlement for U.S. Treasury securities occurs on the next business day (T+1).
Incorrect
Regular way settlement for U.S. Treasury securities occurs on the next business day (T+1).
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Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Under Federal Reserve Regulation T, a 90-day restriction is imposed when a customer opens and closes which of the following positions?
Correct
Regulation T imposes a 90-day restriction for freeriding violations in cash accounts, which occur when securities are sold before being fully paid for.
Incorrect
Regulation T imposes a 90-day restriction for freeriding violations in cash accounts, which occur when securities are sold before being fully paid for.
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Question 50 of 75
50. Question
To offer its shareholders a privilege to obtain its shares at a fixed price, which of the following products does a corporation issue?
Correct
Rights allow shareholders to purchase additional shares at a fixed price, maintaining their ownership percentage.
Incorrect
Rights allow shareholders to purchase additional shares at a fixed price, maintaining their ownership percentage.
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Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Under Rule 144A, an issuer of restricted stock is permitted to sell to which of the following investors?
Correct
Rule 144A allows issuers of restricted securities to sell them to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs), which are entities that own or manage at least $100 million in securities.
Incorrect
Rule 144A allows issuers of restricted securities to sell them to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs), which are entities that own or manage at least $100 million in securities.
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Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Under SEC Regulation S-P (Consumer Privacy), which of the following information must a firm include in its customer privacy and opt-out notices?
Correct
SEC Regulation S-P requires firms to disclose their privacy policies, including how they secure nonpublic information.
Incorrect
SEC Regulation S-P requires firms to disclose their privacy policies, including how they secure nonpublic information.
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Question 53 of 75
53. Question
Which of the following stakeholders has first claim priority in a Chapter 11 proceeding?
Correct
Secured debt holders are the first in line to claim assets in a Chapter 11 proceeding due to the collateral securing their loans.
Incorrect
Secured debt holders are the first in line to claim assets in a Chapter 11 proceeding due to the collateral securing their loans.
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Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Which of the following actions is considered selling away and prohibited under FINRA rules?
Correct
Selling away refers to engaging in private securities transactions without firm approval, which is prohibited under FINRA rules. Representatives must ensure all securities transactions are supervised and recorded by their firm.
Incorrect
Selling away refers to engaging in private securities transactions without firm approval, which is prohibited under FINRA rules. Representatives must ensure all securities transactions are supervised and recorded by their firm.
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Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Under a system of statutory voting, a common stockholder has as many votes for each vacancy on the board of directors as the number of:
Correct
Statutory voting allocates one vote per share owned for each vacancy on the board, ensuring proportional voting power based on the number of shares held.
Incorrect
Statutory voting allocates one vote per share owned for each vacancy on the board, ensuring proportional voting power based on the number of shares held.
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Question 56 of 75
56. Question
A firm is a participant in a public offering. To sell a substantial amount of the securities to its customers, the firm agrees to repurchase the shares at no less than the original sales price. Such agreements are:
Correct
Such agreements are prohibited as they are considered fraudulent and manipulative practices under securities laws.
Incorrect
Such agreements are prohibited as they are considered fraudulent and manipulative practices under securities laws.
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Question 57 of 75
57. Question
The computation of dollar prices and accrued interest on municipal bonds is normally on what calendar basis?
Correct
The 30/360 convention simplifies calculations by assuming each month has 30 days and a year has 360 days.
Incorrect
The 30/360 convention simplifies calculations by assuming each month has 30 days and a year has 360 days.
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Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A customer buys 1 ABC Jan 35 put for a premium of $3 and simultaneously buys 100 shares of ABC stock for $35 per share. The customer will break even when the stock is selling at what price per share at expiration?
Correct
The breakeven price is $38, which includes the stock purchase price and the cost of the put option premium.
Incorrect
The breakeven price is $38, which includes the stock purchase price and the cost of the put option premium.
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Question 59 of 75
59. Question
The call provision of a bond stipulates which of the following factors?
Correct
The call provision specifies the conditions for early redemption, including the call date and price.
Incorrect
The call provision specifies the conditions for early redemption, including the call date and price.
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Question 60 of 75
60. Question
A savings account at a bank is guaranteed by which of the following entities?
Correct
The FDIC insures deposits in savings accounts at member banks, providing protection up to $250,000 per depositor, per insured bank, for each account ownership category.
Incorrect
The FDIC insures deposits in savings accounts at member banks, providing protection up to $250,000 per depositor, per insured bank, for each account ownership category.
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Question 61 of 75
61. Question
What is the role of the Federal Reserve in capital markets?
Correct
The Federal Reserve controls monetary policy, which includes managing the money supply and interest rates.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve controls monetary policy, which includes managing the money supply and interest rates.
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Question 62 of 75
62. Question
What is the primary role of the Federal Reserve?
Correct
The Federal Reserve manages the nation’s monetary policy to achieve stable prices and maximum employment.
Incorrect
The Federal Reserve manages the nation’s monetary policy to achieve stable prices and maximum employment.
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Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Which of the following comparisons best describes the essential difference between a primary distribution and a secondary distribution?
Correct
The key difference between primary and secondary distributions is that primary distributions involve new securities being issued directly by the company, while secondary distributions involve the sale of existing securities that are already outstanding. This reflects the basic distinction between new issuance and resale of existing securities.
Incorrect
The key difference between primary and secondary distributions is that primary distributions involve new securities being issued directly by the company, while secondary distributions involve the sale of existing securities that are already outstanding. This reflects the basic distinction between new issuance and resale of existing securities.
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Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding the concept of an annuity contract?
Correct
The periodic payments of variable annuities depend on the performance of the insurance company’s separate account.
Incorrect
The periodic payments of variable annuities depend on the performance of the insurance company’s separate account.
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Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Which type of market involves the trading of securities directly between investors?
Correct
The secondary market allows investors to trade previously issued securities among themselves.
Incorrect
The secondary market allows investors to trade previously issued securities among themselves.
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Question 66 of 75
66. Question
What does the Securities Act of 1933 regulate?
Correct
The Securities Act of 1933 governs the issuance of new securities in the primary market.
Incorrect
The Securities Act of 1933 governs the issuance of new securities in the primary market.
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Question 67 of 75
67. Question
What is the primary purpose of the SIPC?
Correct
The SIPC protects customer accounts if a broker-dealer fails.
Incorrect
The SIPC protects customer accounts if a broker-dealer fails.
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Question 68 of 75
68. Question
When selling a fixed amount of a base currency to purchase a counter currency, which of the following factors is primarily used to determine how much of the counter currency the customer will receive?
Correct
The spot exchange rate is the primary factor used to calculate how much of a counter currency is received when exchanging a fixed amount of a base currency.
Incorrect
The spot exchange rate is the primary factor used to calculate how much of a counter currency is received when exchanging a fixed amount of a base currency.
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Question 69 of 75
69. Question
The primary purpose of a syndicate desk in the context of an equity offering is to:
Correct
The syndicate desk focuses on building the order book and stock allocation.
Incorrect
The syndicate desk focuses on building the order book and stock allocation.
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Question 70 of 75
70. Question
In the event of a stock split, which of the following parties is required to maintain a record of the shareholders eligible to receive the additional shares?
Correct
The transfer agent maintains accurate records of shareholders and ensures proper distribution during stock splits.
Incorrect
The transfer agent maintains accurate records of shareholders and ensures proper distribution during stock splits.
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Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Which of the following is a prohibited activity?
Correct
Trading on material non-public information is illegal and violates securities regulations.
Incorrect
Trading on material non-public information is illegal and violates securities regulations.
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Question 72 of 75
72. Question
The owner of which of the following products is most exposed to inflationary risk?
Correct
Treasury bonds are highly susceptible to inflationary risk because their fixed interest payments lose purchasing power as inflation rises. Investments like stocks or short-term Treasury bills are less affected.
Incorrect
Treasury bonds are highly susceptible to inflationary risk because their fixed interest payments lose purchasing power as inflation rises. Investments like stocks or short-term Treasury bills are less affected.
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Question 73 of 75
73. Question
When is interest on Treasury notes paid?
Correct
Treasury notes pay interest semiannually, which is standard for U.S. government debt securities like notes and bonds.
Incorrect
Treasury notes pay interest semiannually, which is standard for U.S. government debt securities like notes and bonds.
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Question 74 of 75
74. Question
Which of the following statements is true about treasury stock?
Correct
Treasury stock is stock that a corporation issued and subsequently reacquired. It does not carry voting rights or receive dividends and is not considered outstanding.
Incorrect
Treasury stock is stock that a corporation issued and subsequently reacquired. It does not carry voting rights or receive dividends and is not considered outstanding.
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Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Which of the following statements is true about all U.S. government agency issues?
Correct
U.S. government agency securities are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. This is a fundamental characteristic that applies to all agency issues. The other statements are either incorrect or only apply to specific types of agency securities.
Incorrect
U.S. government agency securities are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. This is a fundamental characteristic that applies to all agency issues. The other statements are either incorrect or only apply to specific types of agency securities.