SIE Practice Exam: SIE Practice Exam is useful for aspirants who want to assess their readiness before taking the actual Securities Industry Essentials test. It helps candidates get comfortable with the exam pattern, improve their time management skills, and identify weak areas that need more attention. Regularly attempting practice exams also boosts confidence and reduces test-day anxiety, giving aspirants a better chance to succeed on their first attempt.
By using these practice exams, candidates can build a solid foundation in key topics such as regulatory agencies, types of securities products, market structure, and customer account handling. Whether you’re just starting your preparation or looking for a final review, SIE practice tests are an effective tool to sharpen your knowledge and stay exam-ready.
SIE Practice Exam 3 – Securities Industry Essentials
The practice exam contains 20 questions that closely reflect the style and difficulty level of the actual SIE exam. Each question is carefully crafted to cover important topics such as regulatory agencies, securities products, trading processes, and industry rules. After completing the test, you can review detailed explanations for each answer, helping you understand not just what is correct, but why it’s correct.
This 20-question format makes it easy for aspirants to quickly assess their knowledge in a short study session, while still providing valuable insights into areas that need improvement. Regular practice with these mini-exams can gradually build up your skills and boost your confidence as you prepare for the full-length SIE exam.
SIE Practice Exam 3
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SIE Practice Exam 3
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A municipal advisor primarily assists issuers with:
Correct
Municipal Advisors assist issuers, such as state and local governments, in structuring and issuing municipal securities.
Role of a Municipal Advisor:
A municipal advisor works directly with issuers, such as cities or municipalities. He /she plans, structures, and issues municipal securities. They provide expert guidance on financing options, regulatory compliance, and cost-effective borrowing strategies.Incorrect
Municipal Advisors assist issuers, such as state and local governments, in structuring and issuing municipal securities.
Role of a Municipal Advisor:
A municipal advisor works directly with issuers, such as cities or municipalities. He /she plans, structures, and issues municipal securities. They provide expert guidance on financing options, regulatory compliance, and cost-effective borrowing strategies. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
A registered representative gave three clients gifts totaling $40, $30, and $50 within one year. Has the representative exceeded the FINRA limit on gifts and gratuities?
Correct
The FINRA rule limits gifts to $100 per client per year. Since no one client received a gift greater than $100, the representative has not violated the rule.
Incorrect
The FINRA rule limits gifts to $100 per client per year. Since no one client received a gift greater than $100, the representative has not violated the rule.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A market maker quotes a bid price of $45 and an asking price of $45.20. How much does the market maker make per share if an investor buys at the ask price and another sells at the bid price?
Correct
The market maker earns the difference between the bid price and the ask price. Here the bid price is $45 and asking price is 45.20$. So, the spread is ($45.20 – $45.00)= $0.20.
A market maker earns from the bid-ask spread, which is the difference between the asking price ($45.20) and the bid price ($45.00). In this case, the spread is $0.20 per share.
When an investor buys at the asking price and another sells at the bid price, the market maker earns $0.20 per share as profit.
Incorrect
The market maker earns the difference between the bid price and the ask price. Here the bid price is $45 and asking price is 45.20$. So, the spread is ($45.20 – $45.00)= $0.20.
A market maker earns from the bid-ask spread, which is the difference between the asking price ($45.20) and the bid price ($45.00). In this case, the spread is $0.20 per share.
When an investor buys at the asking price and another sells at the bid price, the market maker earns $0.20 per share as profit.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
If an investor owns 400 shares and there are 5 board positions to fill, how many total votes does the investor have under statutory voting?
Correct
Under statutory voting, the investor has 400 shares multiplied by 5 positions. Consequently, he/she has a total of 2,000 votes, which must be evenly distributed.
Under statutory voting, each shareholder has one vote per share for each board position. If an investor owns 400 shares and there are 5 board positions, the total votes are calculated as 400×5=2,000.
The votes must be distributed equally among the positions, unlike cumulative voting, where votes can be concentrated on specific candidates. This ensures proportional representation based on share ownership.
Incorrect
Under statutory voting, the investor has 400 shares multiplied by 5 positions. Consequently, he/she has a total of 2,000 votes, which must be evenly distributed.
Under statutory voting, each shareholder has one vote per share for each board position. If an investor owns 400 shares and there are 5 board positions, the total votes are calculated as 400×5=2,000.
The votes must be distributed equally among the positions, unlike cumulative voting, where votes can be concentrated on specific candidates. This ensures proportional representation based on share ownership.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
At what age does an individual have to start taking Required Minimum Distributions (RMDs) from a Traditional IRA, if he reaches this age after December 2022?
Correct
Under the SECURE Act 2.0, the beginning date for RMDs for individuals who turn 72 after 2022 is increased to age 73 from a Traditional IRA. This would give more time for retirement savings to grow tax-deferred.
Under the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022, the age at which individuals must begin taking Required Minimum Distributions (RMDs) from a Traditional IRA is 73 for those who turn 72 after December 31, 2022.
(59½) is the age at which penalty-free withdrawals can begin, but not when RMDs are required.
(70½) is outdated, as the SECURE Act of 2019 raised the age to 72 for those reaching (70½) after 2019.
Therefore; based on current legislation, 73 is the correct RMD age.
Incorrect
Under the SECURE Act 2.0, the beginning date for RMDs for individuals who turn 72 after 2022 is increased to age 73 from a Traditional IRA. This would give more time for retirement savings to grow tax-deferred.
Under the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022, the age at which individuals must begin taking Required Minimum Distributions (RMDs) from a Traditional IRA is 73 for those who turn 72 after December 31, 2022.
(59½) is the age at which penalty-free withdrawals can begin, but not when RMDs are required.
(70½) is outdated, as the SECURE Act of 2019 raised the age to 72 for those reaching (70½) after 2019.
Therefore; based on current legislation, 73 is the correct RMD age.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) provide a convenient investment vehicle for U.S. buyers in:
Correct
American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) are a way for U.S. investors to buy shares in foreign companies without having to deal with foreign stock exchanges directly. An ADR represents a specific number of shares in a foreign company and is traded on U.S. exchanges like the NYSE or NASDAQ. This allows U.S. investors to invest in foreign companies while enjoying the convenience of trading in U.S. dollars and receiving dividends in the same currency.
Incorrect
American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) are a way for U.S. investors to buy shares in foreign companies without having to deal with foreign stock exchanges directly. An ADR represents a specific number of shares in a foreign company and is traded on U.S. exchanges like the NYSE or NASDAQ. This allows U.S. investors to invest in foreign companies while enjoying the convenience of trading in U.S. dollars and receiving dividends in the same currency.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Who is responsible for the investment decisions in the 529 plan account?
Correct
In the 529 plan, the owner of the account is responsible for investment decisions as well as contributions to be made for this account. The beneficiary is the one whom account funds will be used for, but he cannot make investment decisions.
Incorrect
In the 529 plan, the owner of the account is responsible for investment decisions as well as contributions to be made for this account. The beneficiary is the one whom account funds will be used for, but he cannot make investment decisions.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Under what circumstances must an SRO file Form 19b-4 with the SEC?
Correct
SROs must file Form 19b-4 with the SEC when proposing new trading rules. This filing justifies that the proposed rule change supports fair trading practices and investor protection.
Form 19b-4 is explicitly required when a Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) proposes a new rule or amends an existing rule that governs its operations or the markets it oversees.
Purpose of Form 19b-4: This form ensures that the SEC reviews and approves changes to trading rules, maintaining fair and transparent markets.
Other options (e.g., changes in leadership, mission statements, or membership fees) are administrative matters and do not require SEC approval through Form 19b-4.
Incorrect
SROs must file Form 19b-4 with the SEC when proposing new trading rules. This filing justifies that the proposed rule change supports fair trading practices and investor protection.
Form 19b-4 is explicitly required when a Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) proposes a new rule or amends an existing rule that governs its operations or the markets it oversees.
Purpose of Form 19b-4: This form ensures that the SEC reviews and approves changes to trading rules, maintaining fair and transparent markets.
Other options (e.g., changes in leadership, mission statements, or membership fees) are administrative matters and do not require SEC approval through Form 19b-4.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
A client places a buy-limit order for 100 shares of ABC stock at $45. Which one of the following would happen if the price of that stock declines to $ 45 or lower?
Correct
A buy-limit order allows the investor to purchase a stock at or below a specified price. In this case, the client has set a buy-limit order at $45. If the stock price drops to $45 or lower, the order is triggered and executed at that price or better. This ensures the client does not pay more than $45 per share.
Incorrect
A buy-limit order allows the investor to purchase a stock at or below a specified price. In this case, the client has set a buy-limit order at $45. If the stock price drops to $45 or lower, the order is triggered and executed at that price or better. This ensures the client does not pay more than $45 per share.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Which of the following situations best describes positive net purchases in a mutual fund?
Correct
Positive net transactions occur when purchases exceed redemptions, bringing more money into the fund than is being taken out.
Incorrect
Positive net transactions occur when purchases exceed redemptions, bringing more money into the fund than is being taken out.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which money market instrument is issued at a discount and pays its return in terms of the difference between its purchase price and face value at maturity?
Correct
T-bills are issued at a discount and mature at face value. It is the difference between the discounted purchase price and the face value at maturity.
Incorrect
T-bills are issued at a discount and mature at face value. It is the difference between the discounted purchase price and the face value at maturity.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
An investor purchased 100 shares of XYZ Corporation for $20 each share. Over a sequence of years, the corporation declared a 3-for-1 stock split and the investor reinvested dividends to purchase 50 more shares. What is the investor’s new cost basis per share, assuming no other transactions?
Correct
After the 3-for-1 stock split, the investor’s 100 shares become 300 shares, reducing the cost basis to $6.67 per share. After reinvesting dividends to purchase 50 more shares, the total number of shares becomes 350. The new cost basis is $2,000 ÷ 350 = $5.71 per share.
Incorrect
After the 3-for-1 stock split, the investor’s 100 shares become 300 shares, reducing the cost basis to $6.67 per share. After reinvesting dividends to purchase 50 more shares, the total number of shares becomes 350. The new cost basis is $2,000 ÷ 350 = $5.71 per share.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
A self-employed individual has established a Simplified Employee Pension (SEP-IRA). For the year 2025, the owner decides to contribute as much as possible. What is the maximum limit for this SEP-IRA?
Correct
For 2025, the maximum contribution limit for a Simplified Employee Pension (SEP-IRA) is the lesser of $69,000 or 25% of net earnings from self-employment. This limit allows high-earning self-employed individuals to save significantly for retirement.
Incorrect
For 2025, the maximum contribution limit for a Simplified Employee Pension (SEP-IRA) is the lesser of $69,000 or 25% of net earnings from self-employment. This limit allows high-earning self-employed individuals to save significantly for retirement.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Customer confirmations must be retained by brokers/dealers for how many years, under FINRA rules?
Correct
According to SEC Rule 17a-4, customer confirmations must be retained for a minimum of three years.
Incorrect
According to SEC Rule 17a-4, customer confirmations must be retained for a minimum of three years.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
How does a Tenants in Common (TIC) investment typically differ from other Direct Participation Programs (DPPs)?
Correct
Tenants in Common (TIC) investments, a type of Direct Participation Program (DPP), allow multiple investors to pool their resources to invest in real estate. Unlike other DPPs, TIC investors directly own a portion of the property, which provides shared benefits and risks but lacks high liquidity.
Incorrect
Tenants in Common (TIC) investments, a type of Direct Participation Program (DPP), allow multiple investors to pool their resources to invest in real estate. Unlike other DPPs, TIC investors directly own a portion of the property, which provides shared benefits and risks but lacks high liquidity.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
An option sells for a premium of$10. The time value is $6. What is the intrinsic value?
Correct
The intrinsic value is computed by subtracting the time value from the premium. Hence, $10 (premium) – $6 (time value) = $4 (intrinsic value).
Incorrect
The intrinsic value is computed by subtracting the time value from the premium. Hence, $10 (premium) – $6 (time value) = $4 (intrinsic value).
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
How does the tax treatment of municipal bonds differ when held in a tax-advantaged account versus in a taxable account?
Correct
Municipal bonds’ interest is generally exempt from federal income tax. This tax-exempt status typically remains regardless of whether the bond is held in a taxable or tax-advantaged account. The key benefit of a tax-advantaged account is deferring or eliminating taxes on other types of investment gains. Municipal bond interest tax exemption is intrinsic to the bond itself.
Incorrect
Municipal bonds’ interest is generally exempt from federal income tax. This tax-exempt status typically remains regardless of whether the bond is held in a taxable or tax-advantaged account. The key benefit of a tax-advantaged account is deferring or eliminating taxes on other types of investment gains. Municipal bond interest tax exemption is intrinsic to the bond itself.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Moody’s uses numerical modifiers to further detail their ratings. Which one of the following would represent a higher quality bond within the Aa category?
Correct
Moody’s numerical modifiers, where 1 is the highest quality within a given rating category, mean that Aa1 is of higher quality than Aa2 and Aa3.
Incorrect
Moody’s numerical modifiers, where 1 is the highest quality within a given rating category, mean that Aa1 is of higher quality than Aa2 and Aa3.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Which of the following is a manner in which mortgage REITs can generate income by investing?
Correct
Mortgage REITs are those that invest in construction loans and mortgages. They derive their income from the interest that is earned by such loans, which is passed on to the investors.
Incorrect
Mortgage REITs are those that invest in construction loans and mortgages. They derive their income from the interest that is earned by such loans, which is passed on to the investors.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
How frequently are the Firm Element Continuing Education meetings required to be conducted by member firms?
Correct
Member firms are required to conduct Firm Element Continuing Education meetings on an annual basis. This will keep the registered representatives informed regarding regulatory developments, new products, and other industry topics that are important.
Incorrect
Member firms are required to conduct Firm Element Continuing Education meetings on an annual basis. This will keep the registered representatives informed regarding regulatory developments, new products, and other industry topics that are important.