SIE Practice Questions FREE 2025: SIE exams will help aspirants to build a strong foundation in the basics of the securities industry, including key concepts like types of investment products, regulatory agencies, and market structure. Successfully passing the SIE exam demonstrates a candidate’s understanding of essential industry standards and opens the door to entry-level roles in brokerage firms, investment companies, and financial services institutions. Moreover, clearing the SIE is often the first step toward pursuing more advanced licenses, such as the Series 7 or Series 63, making it a valuable milestone for anyone serious about a career in finance. By preparing thoroughly and passing the SIE, aspirants gain both knowledge and credibility, giving them a competitive edge in the job market.
FREE SIE Practice Questions
Below is the Part 2 of the exam series, featuring another set of 20 carefully selected questions to further strengthen your SIE exam preparation. This set is designed to cover additional topics and concepts that are frequently tested, giving you a broader understanding of the securities industry essentials. Each question includes detailed explanations to help you learn from both correct and incorrect answers.
SIE Practice Exam 2
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SIE Practice Exam 2
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
An investor holds a convertible bond with a par value of $800 and a conversion ratio of 40. What does this mean for the investor?
Correct
The conversion ratio tells the investor how many shares of stock they can receive if they convert the bond. Here, a conversion ratio of 40 means the investor can convert the bond into 40 shares of stock, regardless of the bond’s par value.
Incorrect
The conversion ratio tells the investor how many shares of stock they can receive if they convert the bond. Here, a conversion ratio of 40 means the investor can convert the bond into 40 shares of stock, regardless of the bond’s par value.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
A mini-max underwriting requires that the underwriter:
Correct
In a mini-max underwriting, the underwriter agrees to sell a minimum number of shares to ensure that the offering proceeds. If the minimum is not reached, the offering may be canceled.
This underwriting arrangement sets a minimum threshold (mini) of shares that must be sold for the offering to proceed. If the minimum isn’t reached, the offering is canceled.
Why others are incorrect?
Selling all shares or canceling applies to all-or-none underwritings.
Committing to purchase unsold shares applies to firm commitment underwritings.
Guaranteeing all shares are sold isn’t a feature of mini-max.
Incorrect
In a mini-max underwriting, the underwriter agrees to sell a minimum number of shares to ensure that the offering proceeds. If the minimum is not reached, the offering may be canceled.
This underwriting arrangement sets a minimum threshold (mini) of shares that must be sold for the offering to proceed. If the minimum isn’t reached, the offering is canceled.
Why others are incorrect?
Selling all shares or canceling applies to all-or-none underwritings.
Committing to purchase unsold shares applies to firm commitment underwritings.
Guaranteeing all shares are sold isn’t a feature of mini-max.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Which of the following statements about the Options Disclosure Document (ODD) is correct?
Correct
The ODD has to be provided for every investor before an investor’s first options transaction. This paper will explain option trading risks, rewards, and strategies, as well as some other basic information.
Incorrect
The ODD has to be provided for every investor before an investor’s first options transaction. This paper will explain option trading risks, rewards, and strategies, as well as some other basic information.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Which of the following is covered by the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) insurance?
Correct
SIPC insurance covers the customer’s stocks and bonds held at brokerage firms in the event of their failure. Commodities, futures contracts, and mutual funds are not covered by SIPC insurance.
The SIPC protects investors if their brokerage fails, covering securities like stocks and bonds, along with up to $250,000 in cash held in accounts. It does not cover futures contracts, commodities, or direct losses from market fluctuations.
Mutual funds are covered only if they are held in a brokerage account. This ensures investor confidence in the securities market, with regulations updated and effective for 2025 standards.
Incorrect
SIPC insurance covers the customer’s stocks and bonds held at brokerage firms in the event of their failure. Commodities, futures contracts, and mutual funds are not covered by SIPC insurance.
The SIPC protects investors if their brokerage fails, covering securities like stocks and bonds, along with up to $250,000 in cash held in accounts. It does not cover futures contracts, commodities, or direct losses from market fluctuations.
Mutual funds are covered only if they are held in a brokerage account. This ensures investor confidence in the securities market, with regulations updated and effective for 2025 standards.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
What is the chief feature of common stock?
Correct
Common stock is the face value security of a company that represents the ownership of the shareholder in a corporation.
Ownership in a Corporation:
Common stockholders are part-owners of a corporation. They have voting rights in key corporate decisions, such as electing the board of directors.Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
Fixed dividends and guaranteed return of capital are features of preferred stock, not common stock.
Priority over preferred stock in dividend payments is incorrect. Preferred shareholders always have priority for dividends and capital return.
Incorrect
Common stock is the face value security of a company that represents the ownership of the shareholder in a corporation.
Ownership in a Corporation:
Common stockholders are part-owners of a corporation. They have voting rights in key corporate decisions, such as electing the board of directors.Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
Fixed dividends and guaranteed return of capital are features of preferred stock, not common stock.
Priority over preferred stock in dividend payments is incorrect. Preferred shareholders always have priority for dividends and capital return.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A customer places an order to execute a buy of a security, and the broker-dealer is credited with the commission. What capacity is the broker-dealer acting?
Correct
A broker-dealer acts as an agent when it executes a trade on behalf of a customer and does not take title to the securities. The firm receives a commission in exchange for performing this function.
Incorrect
A broker-dealer acts as an agent when it executes a trade on behalf of a customer and does not take title to the securities. The firm receives a commission in exchange for performing this function.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Which of the following agencies regulates the securities markets and protects investors by enforcing Federal securities laws?
Correct
The mission of the SEC is to protect investors, to maintain fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and to facilitate capital formation, by enforcing federal securities laws.
T-bills are short-term debt securities backed by the U.S. government, making them one of the safest investments. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value, with no risk of default.
Corporate bonds are issued by companies, not the government, and involve credit risk.
Municipal bonds are issued by state or local governments and may involve risk depending on the issuer’s financial health.
Preferred stock represents equity, not a debt obligation, and carries higher risk compared to T-bills.
Incorrect
The mission of the SEC is to protect investors, to maintain fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and to facilitate capital formation, by enforcing federal securities laws.
T-bills are short-term debt securities backed by the U.S. government, making them one of the safest investments. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value, with no risk of default.
Corporate bonds are issued by companies, not the government, and involve credit risk.
Municipal bonds are issued by state or local governments and may involve risk depending on the issuer’s financial health.
Preferred stock represents equity, not a debt obligation, and carries higher risk compared to T-bills.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
If an investor’s mutual fund purchase is large enough to qualify for a breakpoint, what happens to the sales charge for that investment?
Correct
When an investment amount reaches a breakpoint, the sales charge percentage is reduced. This therefore creates a cost-saving incentive when investors invest larger sums of money.
Incorrect
When an investment amount reaches a breakpoint, the sales charge percentage is reduced. This therefore creates a cost-saving incentive when investors invest larger sums of money.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
What type of industries would most likely be in extremely high demand during a recession?
Correct
The countercyclical sectors like gold mining do well during bad economic times. In general, these industries benefit when the overall economy is not doing well.
Gold as a Safe Asset:
During economic downturns, investors flock to gold as a stable and reliable store of value. This increased demand benefits the gold mining industries.Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
Luxury Goods: Consumers reduce discretionary spending during recessions.
Construction: Investment in new projects often slows due to reduced capital availability.
Automobiles: Purchases of big-ticket items like cars typically decline during economic uncertainty.
Incorrect
The countercyclical sectors like gold mining do well during bad economic times. In general, these industries benefit when the overall economy is not doing well.
Gold as a Safe Asset:
During economic downturns, investors flock to gold as a stable and reliable store of value. This increased demand benefits the gold mining industries.Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
Luxury Goods: Consumers reduce discretionary spending during recessions.
Construction: Investment in new projects often slows due to reduced capital availability.
Automobiles: Purchases of big-ticket items like cars typically decline during economic uncertainty.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
If an investor buys a bond below its par value, which of the following yields will be the highest?
Correct
If an investor buys a bond below par and it is callable, the Yield to Call (YTC) will likely be the highest. YTC includes both the coupon payments and the price discount realized over a shorter time if the bond is called early.
When a bond is bought at a discount and is callable, the yield to call is usually the highest. This is because it calculates the total return, including the discount gain, over a shorter period if the bond is called early.
Incorrect Options:
Yield to maturity is still high, but it spreads the return over the bond’s full life, which is longer.
Nominal yield and current yield don’t account for the full impact of the discount, so they are lower.
Incorrect
If an investor buys a bond below par and it is callable, the Yield to Call (YTC) will likely be the highest. YTC includes both the coupon payments and the price discount realized over a shorter time if the bond is called early.
When a bond is bought at a discount and is callable, the yield to call is usually the highest. This is because it calculates the total return, including the discount gain, over a shorter period if the bond is called early.
Incorrect Options:
Yield to maturity is still high, but it spreads the return over the bond’s full life, which is longer.
Nominal yield and current yield don’t account for the full impact of the discount, so they are lower.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which one of the following statements characterizes the nature of AML programs in financial institutions?
Correct
AML programs are not static documents that need to be reviewed and updated from time to time in order for them to stay current, updated, and efficient. Bank Secrecy Act regulations require this.
Incorrect
AML programs are not static documents that need to be reviewed and updated from time to time in order for them to stay current, updated, and efficient. Bank Secrecy Act regulations require this.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
An investor buys a 10-year Treasury bond with a 3% annual coupon rate, priced at $1,020. How much will the investor receive in interest payments after six months?
Correct
Treasury bonds pay interest semi-annually (every six months). With a 3% annual coupon rate, the bond pays 3% of its face value per year. Assuming the bond’s face value is $1,000, the annual interest is $30 (3% of $1,000). Therefore, the investor will receive half of that every six months, which is $15. The bond price of $1,020 does not affect the interest payment.
Incorrect
Treasury bonds pay interest semi-annually (every six months). With a 3% annual coupon rate, the bond pays 3% of its face value per year. Assuming the bond’s face value is $1,000, the annual interest is $30 (3% of $1,000). Therefore, the investor will receive half of that every six months, which is $15. The bond price of $1,020 does not affect the interest payment.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
If a mutual fund’s assets increase while its liabilities remain constant, what will be the effect on the NAV (Net Asset Value), assuming the number of outstanding shares stays the same?
Correct
If the assets increase while the liabilities and the number of outstanding shares of a fund don’t change, the NAV will rise. This is because the value of the assets bettered against the liabilities, therefore giving a higher per-share value.
Incorrect
If the assets increase while the liabilities and the number of outstanding shares of a fund don’t change, the NAV will rise. This is because the value of the assets bettered against the liabilities, therefore giving a higher per-share value.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What is the primary purpose of Asset-Backed Securities (ABS)?
Correct
The primary purpose of Asset-Backed Securities (ABS) is to help financial institutions convert loans and receivables, which are usually illiquid, into marketable securities. This process allows them to gain liquidity and access capital more easily.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of Asset-Backed Securities (ABS) is to help financial institutions convert loans and receivables, which are usually illiquid, into marketable securities. This process allows them to gain liquidity and access capital more easily.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Which one of the following activities does a registered representative have an obligation to disclose under FINRA Rule 3270?
Correct
Under FINRA Rule 3270, registered representatives must disclose all outside business activities (OBAs) that involve compensation or the expectation of compensation.
Providing consulting services: This is a compensated activity and must be disclosed.
Playing in a local band on weekends: If the band activities generate income, they qualify as OBAs requiring disclosure.
Working as a part-time sales associate at a retail store: This is a compensated role and must be disclosed.
Since all listed activities can involve compensation, the representative is obligated to disclose each under Rule 3270 to avoid potential conflicts of interest and ensure compliance with regulatory standards.
Incorrect
Under FINRA Rule 3270, registered representatives must disclose all outside business activities (OBAs) that involve compensation or the expectation of compensation.
Providing consulting services: This is a compensated activity and must be disclosed.
Playing in a local band on weekends: If the band activities generate income, they qualify as OBAs requiring disclosure.
Working as a part-time sales associate at a retail store: This is a compensated role and must be disclosed.
Since all listed activities can involve compensation, the representative is obligated to disclose each under Rule 3270 to avoid potential conflicts of interest and ensure compliance with regulatory standards.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
A Coverdell Education Savings Account has a $2,000 maximum contribution per year, and what happens if the funds in a Coverdell ESA are not utilized by the age the beneficiary turns 30?
Correct
If the funds in a Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA) are not used by the time the beneficiary turns 30, any remaining balance must be distributed. The earnings portion of the distribution will be taxable as income and subject to a 10% penalty unless rolled over to another eligible family member under 30 years old.
Incorrect
If the funds in a Coverdell Education Savings Account (ESA) are not used by the time the beneficiary turns 30, any remaining balance must be distributed. The earnings portion of the distribution will be taxable as income and subject to a 10% penalty unless rolled over to another eligible family member under 30 years old.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Which of the following may the owner of a 529 college savings plan do?
Correct
When a 529 college savings plan is established, the owner retains control of the assets in the account after the beneficiary reaches legal adulthood, thereby assuring flexibility in the handling of the finances.
Incorrect
When a 529 college savings plan is established, the owner retains control of the assets in the account after the beneficiary reaches legal adulthood, thereby assuring flexibility in the handling of the finances.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a registered person and a non-registered person in the securities industry?
Correct
Such activities as trading and investment advising may be performed by registered persons, while non-registered persons, by virtue of law, cannot do so.
Incorrect
Such activities as trading and investment advising may be performed by registered persons, while non-registered persons, by virtue of law, cannot do so.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
If a firm has sales of $1,000,000, Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) of $400,000, and operating expenses of $200,000 what would their operating income be?
Correct
Operating income is calculated by subtracting both COGS and operating expenses from net sales. Here the calculation is $1,000,000 (sales) – $400,000 (COGS) – $200,000 (operating expenses) = $400,000 operating income.
Incorrect
Operating income is calculated by subtracting both COGS and operating expenses from net sales. Here the calculation is $1,000,000 (sales) – $400,000 (COGS) – $200,000 (operating expenses) = $400,000 operating income.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
If Company ABC has issued a corporate bond with a 6% coupon rate and matures after 15 years, its credit rating then having been downgraded from investment-grade to high-yield, what is likely to happen to the price of this bond?
Correct
When the credit rating of a bond gets downgraded, that usually means it is getting riskier, therefore the price goes down. With higher risk, investors want a higher yield, and that forces the market price of the bond lower.
Incorrect
When the credit rating of a bond gets downgraded, that usually means it is getting riskier, therefore the price goes down. With higher risk, investors want a higher yield, and that forces the market price of the bond lower.