Preparing up for CAPM Exam? Then, make it a point to practice mock tests for preparation! Here, we have provided a free mock test developed in accordance with CAPM exam format and Structure. Our team of experts have created all these mock tests similar to the actual placement tests, including similar pattern of the test, similar type of questions & the similar level of difficulty. After completing the CAPM mock test 4, you can also go over the detailed result analysis. This analysis with explanation for each question will help you identify your strengths and weaknesses in that particular topics, as well as provide you with customized tips/strategies to enhance your performance and crack the placement tests.
CAPM Mock Test 4
The 150-question mock exam designed to prepare you for the CAPM certification exam. This practice exam will help you familiarize yourself with the exam format and the types of questions you may encounter.
CAPM Mock Test 4
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Question 1 of 75
1. Question
Mid-execution, a sponsor requests from the project manager to terminate the project. What should the project manager do?
Correct
When the project sponsor decides to terminate the project for any reason, the project manager should follow their instructions and terminate the project. In this case, the project manager should immediately start the “close project” process.
Option B: This scenario doesn’t describe any disputes between the project manager and the sponsor concerning contracts’ terms, consequently claims administration is not the right answer.
Incorrect
When the project sponsor decides to terminate the project for any reason, the project manager should follow their instructions and terminate the project. In this case, the project manager should immediately start the “close project” process.
Option B: This scenario doesn’t describe any disputes between the project manager and the sponsor concerning contracts’ terms, consequently claims administration is not the right answer.
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Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Which technique involves prioritizing features, epics, or user stories by business value in a sequential manner?
Correct
Story Mapping is a technique used where features, epics, or user stories are prioritized and organized by business value in a sequential manner. It helps teams visualize the product from the user’s perspective and prioritize work based on delivering the most value first (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 204).
Incorrect
Story Mapping is a technique used where features, epics, or user stories are prioritized and organized by business value in a sequential manner. It helps teams visualize the product from the user’s perspective and prioritize work based on delivering the most value first (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 204).
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Question 3 of 75
3. Question
In which scenario would you use a Use Case Diagram over a Story Map?
Correct
Use Case Diagrams are used to visualize the interactions between users (actors) and a system to achieve specific goals. They help in illustrating how a user might interact with the system to complete a task, making it ideal for showcasing the overall relationship between users and system functions.
Incorrect
Use Case Diagrams are used to visualize the interactions between users (actors) and a system to achieve specific goals. They help in illustrating how a user might interact with the system to complete a task, making it ideal for showcasing the overall relationship between users and system functions.
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Question 4 of 75
4. Question
A project manager is leading a project that has expanded significantly, including multiple teams, having a longer duration and a huge budget. As a result, the sponsor has been replaced by a steering committee. What should the project manager do to adapt to this change?
Correct
On large projects, one sponsor might not be enough. A Steering Committee is established when a large project involves multiple business units, organizations, or individuals who all have a substantial stake in the project’s success and outcomes. The project manager needs to be proactive and respond to this change. The initial communication plan for a single sponsor may not work for a steering committee. To ensure effective communication with the committee, the project manager must understand their communication requirements and preferences.
Incorrect
On large projects, one sponsor might not be enough. A Steering Committee is established when a large project involves multiple business units, organizations, or individuals who all have a substantial stake in the project’s success and outcomes. The project manager needs to be proactive and respond to this change. The initial communication plan for a single sponsor may not work for a steering committee. To ensure effective communication with the committee, the project manager must understand their communication requirements and preferences.
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Question 5 of 75
5. Question
A project manager has made certain that all of the required tasks have been accomplished. However, upon an external post-completion audit, a significant penalty was imposed on the performing organization. What could the project manager have done differently to make sure that no liabilities arose following the audit?
Correct
In the project closing phase, the project team including the project manager, should implement the associated processes to formally complete or close a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 171). It’s important that the closing process is done formally by following the defined procedures to avoid any future liabilities. Procedures are either established by the organization for internal projects or mutually determined by the customer and the provider in the project contract or master-level agreement (PMBOK 7th edition, page 76). Completing project work by accomplishing all tasks in the scope, fixing defects, or updating documents, is not sufficient to avoid penalties. These activities, among others, should be formally approved by the customer first.
Incorrect
In the project closing phase, the project team including the project manager, should implement the associated processes to formally complete or close a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 171). It’s important that the closing process is done formally by following the defined procedures to avoid any future liabilities. Procedures are either established by the organization for internal projects or mutually determined by the customer and the provider in the project contract or master-level agreement (PMBOK 7th edition, page 76). Completing project work by accomplishing all tasks in the scope, fixing defects, or updating documents, is not sufficient to avoid penalties. These activities, among others, should be formally approved by the customer first.
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Question 6 of 75
6. Question
An organization is launching a project to create an innovative product. The details of the components of work packages have been defined and constraints for each component have been identified. Top management requested a precise cost estimate of the project. What estimating technique should the project manager use?
Correct
The Bottom-up estimation technique is used when project requirements are decomposed into small, feasible work elements which are then aggregated to estimate the cost of the entire project. The Bottom-up technique can be used to provide a precise estimate of both the project cost and duration.
Incorrect
The Bottom-up estimation technique is used when project requirements are decomposed into small, feasible work elements which are then aggregated to estimate the cost of the entire project. The Bottom-up technique can be used to provide a precise estimate of both the project cost and duration.
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Question 7 of 75
7. Question
A project manager is facing a market opportunity. How should the project manager categorize an opportunity?
Correct
Positive risks, also known as opportunities, represent potential events or conditions that could benefit the project if they occur.
Incorrect
Positive risks, also known as opportunities, represent potential events or conditions that could benefit the project if they occur.
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Question 8 of 75
8. Question
After facing multiple quality issues, the project manager decided to identify top-priority defects by applying the 80/20 rule (aka the Pareto Chart). What should the project manager do next?
Correct
A Pareto diagram is a histogram that ranks issues from the ones with the highest frequency to the ones with the lowest frequency. The diagram is created according to Pareto’s Law, which states that 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the issues (also known as the 80/20 rule).
Incorrect
A Pareto diagram is a histogram that ranks issues from the ones with the highest frequency to the ones with the lowest frequency. The diagram is created according to Pareto’s Law, which states that 80 percent of the problems come from 20 percent of the issues (also known as the 80/20 rule).
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Question 9 of 75
9. Question
A project manager is assessing the project’s financial status by calculating the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and Actual Cost (AC). What is the project manager calculating?
Correct
The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time expressed as the difference between Earned Value(EV) and the Actual Cost (AC), is known as Cost Variance (PMBOK 7th edition, page 238).
Incorrect
The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time expressed as the difference between Earned Value(EV) and the Actual Cost (AC), is known as Cost Variance (PMBOK 7th edition, page 238).
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Question 10 of 75
10. Question
Adopting a predictive approach to plan a new project, a project manager chooses the ___________ method to estimate the cost by using work breakdown.
Correct
The bottom-up method can be used as an estimation technique for the project’s overall cost by estimating the approximate value of smaller components and using the total sum of these values to find the overall cost. This type of estimation is used to create the project schedule or budget. The project work is typically subdivided into smaller parts and each component is given a duration and cost estimate. The individual duration estimates are aggregated to determine the schedule, while the individual cost estimates are aggregated to determine the budget.
Incorrect
The bottom-up method can be used as an estimation technique for the project’s overall cost by estimating the approximate value of smaller components and using the total sum of these values to find the overall cost. This type of estimation is used to create the project schedule or budget. The project work is typically subdivided into smaller parts and each component is given a duration and cost estimate. The individual duration estimates are aggregated to determine the schedule, while the individual cost estimates are aggregated to determine the budget.
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Question 11 of 75
11. Question
After purchasing a new software needed for the project, a project manager identifies a potential risk; the bought version might be old. In case that risk occurs, the project manager will just need to go to the settings and update the software version. Therefore, the project manager decides to passively accept the risk. In this case, why is passive risk acceptance the appropriate approach?
Correct
Passive risk acceptance is an appropriate approach when it is best to handle the risk when it does occur. No proactive action is needed for passive acceptance other than periodically reviewing the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Incorrect
Passive risk acceptance is an appropriate approach when it is best to handle the risk when it does occur. No proactive action is needed for passive acceptance other than periodically reviewing the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
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Question 12 of 75
12. Question
A project manager is leading a predictive project. After identifying a risk, the project manager decides to transfer it to another party by:
Correct
Risk transfer involves transmitting future risks from one party to another. A common example of risk transfer is purchasing insurance where the risk of a person or an organization is transferred to the insurance company.
Option C: Asking the sponsor to deal with the risk is an escalation rather than a risk transfer.
Option B & D: Other risk response strategies include avoiding, mitigating, or accepting the risk (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Incorrect
Risk transfer involves transmitting future risks from one party to another. A common example of risk transfer is purchasing insurance where the risk of a person or an organization is transferred to the insurance company.
Option C: Asking the sponsor to deal with the risk is an escalation rather than a risk transfer.
Option B & D: Other risk response strategies include avoiding, mitigating, or accepting the risk (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
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Question 13 of 75
13. Question
A solar-powered car project is almost finished when the project manager receives an approved change request to replace a defective component of the car batteries. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Since the project manager has received an approved change request, they should ensure its appropriate implementation.
Option C: Since the change request specifically entails the replacement of the defective component, the project manager shouldn’t repair it instead.
Incorrect
Since the project manager has received an approved change request, they should ensure its appropriate implementation.
Option C: Since the change request specifically entails the replacement of the defective component, the project manager shouldn’t repair it instead.
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Question 14 of 75
14. Question
Due to a financial crisis, an organization decided to pause all internal projects to an undefined date. Knowing that a project manager within this organization has a weekly meeting with a subcontractor who provides the majority of the project’s physical resources, what is the best type of communication to inform this subcontractor of the contract discontinuation decision?
Correct
When dealing with complex issues, such as updating a plan or dealing with legal matters, it would be best to document such discussions and decisions using a formal written format. According to the PMI – Process groups Guide and PMBOK 6th Edition (Pages 206 & 499): “The buyer, usually through its authorized procurement administrator, provides the seller with formal written notice that the contract has been completed. Requirements for formal procurement closure are usually defined in the terms and conditions of the contract”.
Incorrect
When dealing with complex issues, such as updating a plan or dealing with legal matters, it would be best to document such discussions and decisions using a formal written format. According to the PMI – Process groups Guide and PMBOK 6th Edition (Pages 206 & 499): “The buyer, usually through its authorized procurement administrator, provides the seller with formal written notice that the contract has been completed. Requirements for formal procurement closure are usually defined in the terms and conditions of the contract”.
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Question 15 of 75
15. Question
A project team is facing a complicated quality problem that they don’t understand its source and causes. What tool or technique should they use to trace the problem source back to its root cause?
Correct
The Why Why diagram, known also as the Cause and effect diagram, fishbone diagram, or Ishikawa diagram, helps determine the primary or root cause of the problem by breaking down the causes of the issue into distinct branches. (PMI – Process groups guide, page 250).
Incorrect
The Why Why diagram, known also as the Cause and effect diagram, fishbone diagram, or Ishikawa diagram, helps determine the primary or root cause of the problem by breaking down the causes of the issue into distinct branches. (PMI – Process groups guide, page 250).
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Question 16 of 75
16. Question
An organization in need of an accounting software conducts a make or buy analysis. The organization decides to go for in-house development since the analysis shows a payback period of fewer than 3 years. However, when acquiring resources, the project manager finds out that the developer’s rate included in the make-or-buy analysis is only half the current rate in the market. What should the project manager do first?
Correct
The project manager should notify the sponsor of any identified risks that may impact the business value of the project. Business value measurements are used to ensure that the project deliverables remain consistent with the business case and benefits realization plans. Business value can be financial or non-financial (PMBOK 7th edition, page 102). A make-or-buy analysis is considered a tool for measuring financial business value. The sponsor can determine whether to continue the investment or not if the payback period turns out to be more than 3 years after updating the make-or-buy analysis.
Incorrect
The project manager should notify the sponsor of any identified risks that may impact the business value of the project. Business value measurements are used to ensure that the project deliverables remain consistent with the business case and benefits realization plans. Business value can be financial or non-financial (PMBOK 7th edition, page 102). A make-or-buy analysis is considered a tool for measuring financial business value. The sponsor can determine whether to continue the investment or not if the payback period turns out to be more than 3 years after updating the make-or-buy analysis.
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Question 17 of 75
17. Question
A project manager is leading a software project using a predictive approach. During execution, a team member developed a new feature that caused regressions on the other features already used by the client. What should the project manager do? (Select three)
Correct
When issues occur, the right course of action implies informing the client of what happened, suggesting potential solutions for the issue, and then submitting a change request. This is aligned with the philosophy stating “don’t bring me problems, bring me solutions” (PMBOK 7th edition, page 28). Later on, when the issue is fixed, a lessons-learned meeting should be conducted to avoid similar problems in the future.
Option D: Holding the information and not updating the customer on what’s going on with the project can have a bad impact, both on the project and its manager’s transparency.
Incorrect
When issues occur, the right course of action implies informing the client of what happened, suggesting potential solutions for the issue, and then submitting a change request. This is aligned with the philosophy stating “don’t bring me problems, bring me solutions” (PMBOK 7th edition, page 28). Later on, when the issue is fixed, a lessons-learned meeting should be conducted to avoid similar problems in the future.
Option D: Holding the information and not updating the customer on what’s going on with the project can have a bad impact, both on the project and its manager’s transparency.
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Question 18 of 75
18. Question
An organization recently transitioned to the agile approach. However, project team members always wait for the project manager to assign them work. How can the project manager help their team be self-organized?
Correct
The project manager can help their team get self-organized by mentoring them on how to make their own decisions. This will empower them to pick their own tasks without waiting for assignments or asking for permission or direction from the project manager every time.
Incorrect
The project manager can help their team get self-organized by mentoring them on how to make their own decisions. This will empower them to pick their own tasks without waiting for assignments or asking for permission or direction from the project manager every time.
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Question 19 of 75
19. Question
A project manager is assigned to lead a large project with a cost variance of -$40,000, an actual cost of $200,000, and a planned value of $140,000.
Based on these numbers, how much is the project’s Earned Value (EV)?
Correct
Cost Variance (CV) = -$40,000, Actual Cost (AC) = $200,000, and Planned Value (PV) = $140,000. The Earned Value (EV) is calculated using the following cost variance formula: CV = EV – AC, meaning that the project’s EV = CV + AC = -$40,000 + $200,000 = $160,000.
Incorrect
Cost Variance (CV) = -$40,000, Actual Cost (AC) = $200,000, and Planned Value (PV) = $140,000. The Earned Value (EV) is calculated using the following cost variance formula: CV = EV – AC, meaning that the project’s EV = CV + AC = -$40,000 + $200,000 = $160,000.
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Question 20 of 75
20. Question
The project manager resorts to management reserves to handle which type of risk?
Correct
Management reserve is used to deal with unidentified risks, aka “unknown-unknowns”. Management reserve is part of the project budget, but it’s not part of the cost baseline. It is not an estimated reserve either; it is rather defined according to the organization’s processes and policies. It can represent 5% of the total project cost, for example. As the name indicates, this reserve is controlled by management and not by the project manager. Therefore, any usage of this reserve should be pre-approved by management (PMBOK 7th edition, page 242).
Incorrect
Management reserve is used to deal with unidentified risks, aka “unknown-unknowns”. Management reserve is part of the project budget, but it’s not part of the cost baseline. It is not an estimated reserve either; it is rather defined according to the organization’s processes and policies. It can represent 5% of the total project cost, for example. As the name indicates, this reserve is controlled by management and not by the project manager. Therefore, any usage of this reserve should be pre-approved by management (PMBOK 7th edition, page 242).
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Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Which of the following is not considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor?
Correct
A corporate knowledge base is part of the Organizational Process Assets. Enterprise Environment Factors (EEFs), however, include procedures, policies, and legislation that have an impact on how the project manager manages a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 239). Examples of EEFs include Organizational culture, Market standards and conditions, Codes of conduct, Quality standards, Work authorization systems, Risk databases, etc. (PMI Process group, pages 38 & 39)
Incorrect
A corporate knowledge base is part of the Organizational Process Assets. Enterprise Environment Factors (EEFs), however, include procedures, policies, and legislation that have an impact on how the project manager manages a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 239). Examples of EEFs include Organizational culture, Market standards and conditions, Codes of conduct, Quality standards, Work authorization systems, Risk databases, etc. (PMI Process group, pages 38 & 39)
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Question 22 of 75
22. Question
From past experience, the project manager of a construction project knows that there is a risk of not receiving the needed sand supply on time. Therefore, the project manager included this potential threat in the risk management plan. If this risk were to occur, the project manager would have to purchase the sand from another supplier. But, in this case, there may be some differences in the sand quality, which would be a ____________ risk.
Correct
A secondary risk is a risk caused by a response to a primary risk; the secondary risk would not exist if the risk response was not taken.
Incorrect
A secondary risk is a risk caused by a response to a primary risk; the secondary risk would not exist if the risk response was not taken.
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Question 23 of 75
23. Question
After releasing the product, the organization faced poor quality claims from the customer. What kind of non-conformance costs the organization might incur?
Correct
Money spent during or after the project execution due to poor quality is referred to as the Cost of Non-Conformance.
Internal and External Failure Costs fall under Non-Conformance Costs.
Option A: Internal failure costs are failure costs that are associated with defects found by the project team before the product gets released, such as Rework or Scrap costs.
Option C: External Failure Costs, on the other hand, are failure costs associated with defects found by the customer, meaning costs incurred after the product is delivered to the customer, such as costs of Warranty work, Liabilities, Lost business, etc.
Incorrect
Money spent during or after the project execution due to poor quality is referred to as the Cost of Non-Conformance.
Internal and External Failure Costs fall under Non-Conformance Costs.
Option A: Internal failure costs are failure costs that are associated with defects found by the project team before the product gets released, such as Rework or Scrap costs.
Option C: External Failure Costs, on the other hand, are failure costs associated with defects found by the customer, meaning costs incurred after the product is delivered to the customer, such as costs of Warranty work, Liabilities, Lost business, etc.
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Question 24 of 75
24. Question
Which of the following refers to the start-to-finish time required to develop a potentially shippable product increment?
Correct
The time it takes to complete a task from start to finish is referred to as cycle time (PMBOK 7th edition, page 99).
Option A & D: Actual Time and Real Time are used interchangeably to refer to the daily period during which team members are productively working on their assigned tasks.
Option C: When the Agile team is fully productive and they’re not being interrupted by attending meetings or checking emails, we’re talking about the Ideal Time or Ideal Days.
Incorrect
The time it takes to complete a task from start to finish is referred to as cycle time (PMBOK 7th edition, page 99).
Option A & D: Actual Time and Real Time are used interchangeably to refer to the daily period during which team members are productively working on their assigned tasks.
Option C: When the Agile team is fully productive and they’re not being interrupted by attending meetings or checking emails, we’re talking about the Ideal Time or Ideal Days.
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Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Upon reviewing user stories, the Agile coach finds that some do not follow the common template format. Which of the following formats should the agile coach instruct the development team to follow for user stories?
Correct
A predefined template format is usually followed when developing user stories in order to indicate the user’s class (their role), what this class wants to realize (their goal), and why they want to achieve this goal (the benefit) (Cohn 2004). Using the term “so that” in a user story is not mandatory if the purpose is clear enough to everyone; otherwise, “so that” should definitely be used when writing each user story.
Incorrect
A predefined template format is usually followed when developing user stories in order to indicate the user’s class (their role), what this class wants to realize (their goal), and why they want to achieve this goal (the benefit) (Cohn 2004). Using the term “so that” in a user story is not mandatory if the purpose is clear enough to everyone; otherwise, “so that” should definitely be used when writing each user story.
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Question 26 of 75
26. Question
During the solution evaluation phase, a business analyst realizes that the implemented solution is underperforming and not meeting the expected business value. What actions should the business analyst take to assess and address the issue? (Select two)
Correct
The root cause analysis technique helps identify the fundamental reasons why the solution is underperforming. It allows the business analyst to investigate why the expected business value is not being realized and uncover the variances between actual and expected results. The cost-benefit analysis, on the other hand, is used to evaluate the solution’s performance against its costs. It helps determine whether the solution provides sufficient value to justify its continued use or if changes need to be made.
Option A: While stakeholder engagement is important, it does not help diagnose or fix the underperformance of a solution.
Option B: Prototyping is a technique used during the development and design, and not to evaluate the performance of a fully implemented solution.
Option D: The issue lies with the performance of the current solution rather than the overall scope of the project. Revising the scope may be a result of findings from root cause or cost-benefit analysis, but it is not the initial step in evaluating why the solution is underperforming.
Incorrect
The root cause analysis technique helps identify the fundamental reasons why the solution is underperforming. It allows the business analyst to investigate why the expected business value is not being realized and uncover the variances between actual and expected results. The cost-benefit analysis, on the other hand, is used to evaluate the solution’s performance against its costs. It helps determine whether the solution provides sufficient value to justify its continued use or if changes need to be made.
Option A: While stakeholder engagement is important, it does not help diagnose or fix the underperformance of a solution.
Option B: Prototyping is a technique used during the development and design, and not to evaluate the performance of a fully implemented solution.
Option D: The issue lies with the performance of the current solution rather than the overall scope of the project. Revising the scope may be a result of findings from root cause or cost-benefit analysis, but it is not the initial step in evaluating why the solution is underperforming.
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Question 27 of 75
27. Question
The following chart was presented during a retrospective meeting. Which of the following statements is true regarding this chart?
Correct
This chart is a burndown chart that shows that there is work left at the end of the sprint (PMBOK 7th edition, page 108). In fact, 3 story points are left to be completed in order to finalize all the planned work for the exhibited 7-day sprint.
Incorrect
This chart is a burndown chart that shows that there is work left at the end of the sprint (PMBOK 7th edition, page 108). In fact, 3 story points are left to be completed in order to finalize all the planned work for the exhibited 7-day sprint.
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Question 28 of 75
28. Question
A project manager is facing some challenges because of a key stakeholder. The project manager collaborated with this stakeholder in previous projects where the latter frequently changed her requirements and created trouble whenever those requirements were not met. How should the project manager deal with this issue?
Correct
The project manager should involve the key stakeholder from the very beginning of the project to help reduce and uncover risks, as well as increase her “buy-in.” While implementing an agile approach may benefit the project, it does not address the issue of stakeholder management. If the question were “what’s the appropriate approach for the project?”, then adopting an agile approach would be the right answer taking into consideration the frequently changing requirements.
Incorrect
The project manager should involve the key stakeholder from the very beginning of the project to help reduce and uncover risks, as well as increase her “buy-in.” While implementing an agile approach may benefit the project, it does not address the issue of stakeholder management. If the question were “what’s the appropriate approach for the project?”, then adopting an agile approach would be the right answer taking into consideration the frequently changing requirements.
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Question 29 of 75
29. Question
A project manager is assigned to lead a project abroad. At the start of the project execution, the project manager gets worried about the country’s high levels of violence in public. The project manager gets approached by a local police officer who pledges to keep the project team safe during their stay in return for a private money transfer.
How should the project manager respond?
Correct
In such situations, the project manager should not pay and should instead follow the chain of command and solicit their support in providing security to the project team. This situation is considered bribery or at least palm greasing. Nevertheless, the project manager should act proactively and take all security measures.
Incorrect
In such situations, the project manager should not pay and should instead follow the chain of command and solicit their support in providing security to the project team. This situation is considered bribery or at least palm greasing. Nevertheless, the project manager should act proactively and take all security measures.
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Question 30 of 75
30. Question
During a meeting, a team member asks the project manager if there is really a difference between precision and accuracy. How should the project manager reply?
Correct
Accuracy describes how close a measurement is to an accepted value. Precision describes the statistical variability of produced measurement (it can be far off the accepted value) (PMBOK 7th edition, page 55).
Incorrect
Accuracy describes how close a measurement is to an accepted value. Precision describes the statistical variability of produced measurement (it can be far off the accepted value) (PMBOK 7th edition, page 55).
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Question 31 of 75
31. Question
What is a User Story?
Correct
A user story is a brief description of deliverable value for a specific user (PMBOK 7th edition, page 192). A user story is not a narrative story about users; it is a small, granular work unit.
Incorrect
A user story is a brief description of deliverable value for a specific user (PMBOK 7th edition, page 192). A user story is not a narrative story about users; it is a small, granular work unit.
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Question 32 of 75
32. Question
What is the primary benefit of focus groups during requirements elicitation?
Correct
Focus groups are designed to gather input and feedback directly from participants, typically including customers, users, or prequalified stakeholders, during the requirements elicitation phase of a project. The primary benefit is the opportunity for direct interaction and discussion, which helps uncover detailed requirements, preferences, and issues.
Incorrect
Focus groups are designed to gather input and feedback directly from participants, typically including customers, users, or prequalified stakeholders, during the requirements elicitation phase of a project. The primary benefit is the opportunity for direct interaction and discussion, which helps uncover detailed requirements, preferences, and issues.
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Question 33 of 75
33. Question
An Agile project manager is leading a software project using the Scrum framework. While the team implements user stories during the sprint, what should the product owner do?
Correct
The product owner should let the team do their work and answer any questions they might have during the sprint.
Incorrect
The product owner should let the team do their work and answer any questions they might have during the sprint.
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Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Which technique is best for engaging cross-functional stakeholders in a structured meeting to define product information?
Correct
Facilitated workshops are highly effective for engaging cross-functional stakeholders in a structured environment. They bring together different teams or departments to collaboratively define product information, requirements, and solutions. The structured nature of the workshop allows for focused discussions and ensures that stakeholders from various functions can contribute their perspectives.
Incorrect
Facilitated workshops are highly effective for engaging cross-functional stakeholders in a structured environment. They bring together different teams or departments to collaboratively define product information, requirements, and solutions. The structured nature of the workshop allows for focused discussions and ensures that stakeholders from various functions can contribute their perspectives.
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Question 35 of 75
35. Question
What is the primary benefit of a traceability matrix in managing scope creep?
Correct
A traceability matrix helps manage scope creep by linking requirements to their source (e.g., stakeholders, project goals) and ensuring that only approved and necessary changes are incorporated into the final product or solution. This prevents unnecessary features or requirements from being added, which is a primary cause of scope creep.
Incorrect
A traceability matrix helps manage scope creep by linking requirements to their source (e.g., stakeholders, project goals) and ensuring that only approved and necessary changes are incorporated into the final product or solution. This prevents unnecessary features or requirements from being added, which is a primary cause of scope creep.
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Question 36 of 75
36. Question
Which of the following is a risk quantification method?
Correct
Decision Tree Analysis is a risk quantification method that helps project managers evaluate the potential outcomes, risks, and rewards of various decisions. It quantifies risks by assigning probabilities and values to different branches of the tree, aiding in decision-making (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 175).
Incorrect
Decision Tree Analysis is a risk quantification method that helps project managers evaluate the potential outcomes, risks, and rewards of various decisions. It quantifies risks by assigning probabilities and values to different branches of the tree, aiding in decision-making (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 175).
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Question 37 of 75
37. Question
What is the primary focus of the Measurement Performance Domain?
Correct
The Measurement Performance Domain focuses on assessing how well the project is performing in relation to its objectives. It involves tracking progress, evaluating performance metrics, and determining whether the project is meeting its intended goals. (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 58)
Incorrect
The Measurement Performance Domain focuses on assessing how well the project is performing in relation to its objectives. It involves tracking progress, evaluating performance metrics, and determining whether the project is meeting its intended goals. (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 58)
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Question 38 of 75
38. Question
All of the following are values of the Agile Manifesto, except for:
Correct
The correct value is “Responding to Change over Following a Plan”. All of the other alternatives are the right values of the Agile Manifesto (Agile Practice Guide, page 8).
Incorrect
The correct value is “Responding to Change over Following a Plan”. All of the other alternatives are the right values of the Agile Manifesto (Agile Practice Guide, page 8).
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Question 39 of 75
39. Question
In adaptive life cycles, how is the scope of deliverables typically managed?
Correct
In adaptive life cycles such as Agile, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations. A detailed scope is defined and approved at the beginning of each iteration, allowing flexibility to accommodate changes throughout the project (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 16).
Incorrect
In adaptive life cycles such as Agile, the deliverables are developed over multiple iterations. A detailed scope is defined and approved at the beginning of each iteration, allowing flexibility to accommodate changes throughout the project (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 16).
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Question 40 of 75
40. Question
A sales representative of a luxurious hotel chain asked a local carpenter, who owns a small workshop specialized in designing and manufacturing outdoor furniture, to produce a single unit of a new concept of egg chairs as quickly and inexpensively as possible. What is this product called?
Correct
A Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is a prototype with just enough features to be presented to early users, who can then provide feedback for future product development (PMBOK 7th edition, page 243).
Incorrect
A Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is a prototype with just enough features to be presented to early users, who can then provide feedback for future product development (PMBOK 7th edition, page 243).
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Question 41 of 75
41. Question
What is the role of the project manager in resolving conflicts within the team?
Correct
The role of the project manager in resolving conflicts within the team is to focus on the issues and not the people involved. By concentrating on the root cause of the conflict rather than personal differences, the project manager can facilitate constructive dialogue and find solutions that address the problem without creating personal hostility. (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 30)
Incorrect
The role of the project manager in resolving conflicts within the team is to focus on the issues and not the people involved. By concentrating on the root cause of the conflict rather than personal differences, the project manager can facilitate constructive dialogue and find solutions that address the problem without creating personal hostility. (PMBOK Guide 7th Edition, page 30)
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Question 42 of 75
42. Question
In which process does the monitoring of the project status takes place to update project costs and manage the cost baseline?
Correct
Control Costs is the process of monitoring and updating project costs while managing changes to the cost baseline. The key benefit is ensuring the cost baseline remains stable throughout the project.
Incorrect
Control Costs is the process of monitoring and updating project costs while managing changes to the cost baseline. The key benefit is ensuring the cost baseline remains stable throughout the project.
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Question 43 of 75
43. Question
A project manager is managing a web application project using the Agile approach. During the first sprint, the team completed 4 tasks of 3, 5, 8, and 2 story points respectively. They also finished half a 13-story points task. What is the velocity of the team?
Correct
Velocity is a measure of the amount of fully completed work in a sprint. Partially done tasks should not be counted. In this case, velocity = 3 + 5 + 8 + 2 = 18 points.
Incorrect
Velocity is a measure of the amount of fully completed work in a sprint. Partially done tasks should not be counted. In this case, velocity = 3 + 5 + 8 + 2 = 18 points.
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Question 44 of 75
44. Question
A project manager is managing a construction project. The project manager identified a risk that might affect work execution due to an equipment malfunction. Which of the following risk response strategies should the project manager use? (Select two)
Correct
This is an example of negative risk, therefore, the project manager should use either mitigation to minimize the impact of the risk or avoidance to completely eliminate the risk.
Options A & B: Exploit and enhance are positive risk response strategies (PMBOK 7th Edition, pages 123 & 125).
Incorrect
This is an example of negative risk, therefore, the project manager should use either mitigation to minimize the impact of the risk or avoidance to completely eliminate the risk.
Options A & B: Exploit and enhance are positive risk response strategies (PMBOK 7th Edition, pages 123 & 125).
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Question 45 of 75
45. Question
In order to monitor and track the progress of project performance, the organization’s management uses earned value measurements. Which of the following values is an indication that a project has issues?
Correct
A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of less than 1 means that the project is over budget.
Incorrect
A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of less than 1 means that the project is over budget.
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Question 46 of 75
46. Question
What is the significance of performing business analysis before a project initiation?
Correct
Business analysis is fundamentally about understanding the problem or opportunity the organization is facing. One of the key roles of business analysis is to conduct a thorough needs assessment to ensure that the root causes of problems are understood, rather than addressing symptoms repeatedly. This step is crucial before project initiation to provide clarity on the problem and set a proper foundation for the project.
Incorrect
Business analysis is fundamentally about understanding the problem or opportunity the organization is facing. One of the key roles of business analysis is to conduct a thorough needs assessment to ensure that the root causes of problems are understood, rather than addressing symptoms repeatedly. This step is crucial before project initiation to provide clarity on the problem and set a proper foundation for the project.
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Question 47 of 75
47. Question
During the planning phase of the project, the project manager observed that several stakeholders were unsupportive, fearing job losses as a result of the project. What should the project manager do to address this issue?
Correct
The best course of action for the project manager to handle unsupportive stakeholders is to create an efficient communication plan as well as a stakeholder engagement plan. As a project manager, you can’t disregard or ignore any stakeholders regardless of their attitude towards your project. If anything, you should give more attention and put more effort into engaging unsupportive ones in case they have a key role or big influence on your project. An efficient communication management plan and stakeholder engagement plan will help you identify these unsupportive stakeholders’ level of interest and power and plan your communication and the way you’re going to engage them accordingly, making it easier to ensure their collaboration and even possible to win their support.
Option D: Refusing to manage the project doesn’t mean the project will be canceled, thus it won’t change the fact that certain stakeholders will still lose their jobs. Moreover, since the project was chosen for execution, it’s intended to bring added value despite its downside for some involved stakeholders.
Incorrect
The best course of action for the project manager to handle unsupportive stakeholders is to create an efficient communication plan as well as a stakeholder engagement plan. As a project manager, you can’t disregard or ignore any stakeholders regardless of their attitude towards your project. If anything, you should give more attention and put more effort into engaging unsupportive ones in case they have a key role or big influence on your project. An efficient communication management plan and stakeholder engagement plan will help you identify these unsupportive stakeholders’ level of interest and power and plan your communication and the way you’re going to engage them accordingly, making it easier to ensure their collaboration and even possible to win their support.
Option D: Refusing to manage the project doesn’t mean the project will be canceled, thus it won’t change the fact that certain stakeholders will still lose their jobs. Moreover, since the project was chosen for execution, it’s intended to bring added value despite its downside for some involved stakeholders.
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Question 48 of 75
48. Question
A project manager is in the phase of identifying and evaluating the risks of a construction project. One of the identified risks is so complex and ambiguous that the project manager decides to transfer it to the program manager so the latter can make the appropriate decision. How did the project manager respond to the risk?
Correct
In the described scenario, the project manager has escalated the risk to the program manager. When a threat is considered to be outside the project scope or when the appropriate response exceeds the project manager’s authority, risk escalation is the suitable risk response strategy (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123). Risk escalation involves passing the risk to the right owner (the program manager in this case) to ensure that it is recognized, understood, and managed appropriately.
Incorrect
In the described scenario, the project manager has escalated the risk to the program manager. When a threat is considered to be outside the project scope or when the appropriate response exceeds the project manager’s authority, risk escalation is the suitable risk response strategy (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123). Risk escalation involves passing the risk to the right owner (the program manager in this case) to ensure that it is recognized, understood, and managed appropriately.
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Question 49 of 75
49. Question
The process of backlog refinement involves:
Correct
Backlog refinement refers to the progressive elaboration of project requirements where the Agile team collaboratively integrates reviews and updates with the sole purpose of satisfying the customer and product owner’s needs (PMBOK 7th edition, page 235).
Incorrect
Backlog refinement refers to the progressive elaboration of project requirements where the Agile team collaboratively integrates reviews and updates with the sole purpose of satisfying the customer and product owner’s needs (PMBOK 7th edition, page 235).
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Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Despite creating an agenda and timeboxing the meetings, the project manager struggles to engage all attendees. What should the project manager do?
Correct
As a facilitator, the project manager must ensure that all attendees take part in the meeting by encouraging them to share their ideas and opinions and engaging them in the discussed topics. It’s among their responsibilities as a facilitator to ensure that everyone takes part in the decision-making, problem-solving, brainstorming, etc. activities that take place during meetings.
Promoting participation and maintaining the ideas and discussions flow during such events is an indication of efficient facilitation.
Option A & C: Changing meetings from face-to-face to virtual or limiting their duration does not guarantee more engagement or participation.
Option B: Limiting the intervention of talkative participants will only result in more inactive attendees.
Incorrect
As a facilitator, the project manager must ensure that all attendees take part in the meeting by encouraging them to share their ideas and opinions and engaging them in the discussed topics. It’s among their responsibilities as a facilitator to ensure that everyone takes part in the decision-making, problem-solving, brainstorming, etc. activities that take place during meetings.
Promoting participation and maintaining the ideas and discussions flow during such events is an indication of efficient facilitation.
Option A & C: Changing meetings from face-to-face to virtual or limiting their duration does not guarantee more engagement or participation.
Option B: Limiting the intervention of talkative participants will only result in more inactive attendees.
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Question 51 of 75
51. Question
What is Velocity?
Correct
Velocity refers to a Scrum development team’s rate of delivering business value. An agile team’s velocity is calculated by simply adding up the estimates or story points of all the features, user stories, requirements, or tasks successfully delivered by all team members during an iteration.
Incorrect
Velocity refers to a Scrum development team’s rate of delivering business value. An agile team’s velocity is calculated by simply adding up the estimates or story points of all the features, user stories, requirements, or tasks successfully delivered by all team members during an iteration.
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Question 52 of 75
52. Question
A project manager is assigned to lead a project. During the project planning phase, the defined scope was approved by management and all stakeholders. During the execution of the project work, two key stakeholders ask the project manager to change a particular part of the scope statement. What should the project manager do?
Correct
The stakeholders can submit a change request that can be recorded, evaluated, and either approved or rejected by the Change Control Board (CCB). As long as the change management process is followed, the project scope can be changed. The project sponsor could be part of the CCB which will be deciding on the stakeholders’ change request. Therefore, it’s not appropriate for the project manager to escalate the situation to the project sponsor.
Incorrect
The stakeholders can submit a change request that can be recorded, evaluated, and either approved or rejected by the Change Control Board (CCB). As long as the change management process is followed, the project scope can be changed. The project sponsor could be part of the CCB which will be deciding on the stakeholders’ change request. Therefore, it’s not appropriate for the project manager to escalate the situation to the project sponsor.
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Question 53 of 75
53. Question
What acronym describes the characteristics of a well-refined product backlog?
Correct
The acronym DEEP describes the characteristics of a well-refined product backlog. It stands for:
Detailed appropriately: Items are sufficiently detailed for the stage they are in.
Emergent: The backlog evolves as more is learned about the product.
Estimable: Items should be estimable, meaning the team can provide a rough idea of the effort required.
Prioritized: Items are ranked in order of importance or business value.
Incorrect
The acronym DEEP describes the characteristics of a well-refined product backlog. It stands for:
Detailed appropriately: Items are sufficiently detailed for the stage they are in.
Emergent: The backlog evolves as more is learned about the product.
Estimable: Items should be estimable, meaning the team can provide a rough idea of the effort required.
Prioritized: Items are ranked in order of importance or business value.
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Question 54 of 75
54. Question
A project involves a large number of stakeholders from various time zones. The project is facing delays due to disagreements on a schedule that accommodates everyone. To address this, the project manager has decided to focus solely on stakeholders within the same time zone. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
The project manager is facing a risk of not meeting the requirements or expectations of all stakeholders. The artifact of risk identification is the risk register, therefore upon identifying a risk the risk register should be updated.
Incorrect
The project manager is facing a risk of not meeting the requirements or expectations of all stakeholders. The artifact of risk identification is the risk register, therefore upon identifying a risk the risk register should be updated.
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Question 55 of 75
55. Question
To estimate the cost of building a standard type of office space, a project manager multiplies the standard rate of one square foot by the total number of square feet required for the new project. What estimation method did the project manager use?
Correct
Parametric estimating calculates cost or duration by using an algorithm that leverages historical data and project-specific parameters.
Incorrect
Parametric estimating calculates cost or duration by using an algorithm that leverages historical data and project-specific parameters.
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Question 56 of 75
56. Question
An approach to adaptive project estimation requires evaluating a user story based on uncertainty, size, and what other attribute?
Correct
Complexity reflects how challenging a user story is to implement. It includes technical difficulties, integration issues, and other factors that affect the effort required to complete the story.
Incorrect
Complexity reflects how challenging a user story is to implement. It includes technical difficulties, integration issues, and other factors that affect the effort required to complete the story.
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Question 57 of 75
57. Question
What are the components the project team will use to Define Activities? (Select three)
Correct
The schedule management plan, scope baseline, and enterprise environmental factors are all inputs to the Define Activities process (PMI Process Groups, page 91).
Option E: Project documents are the documentation created throughout the five Process Groups to initiate, plan, execute, manage and control, close, and deliver the project. They are not a required input to the “Define activities” process.
Incorrect
The schedule management plan, scope baseline, and enterprise environmental factors are all inputs to the Define Activities process (PMI Process Groups, page 91).
Option E: Project documents are the documentation created throughout the five Process Groups to initiate, plan, execute, manage and control, close, and deliver the project. They are not a required input to the “Define activities” process.
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Question 58 of 75
58. Question
A project is nearing the final stages, and the project team has completed most of the planned features. However, there are some outstanding high-priority backlog items. How should the team determine if the product is ready for release?
Correct
This approach allows the project team to assess whether the outstanding backlog items are essential for the product’s functionality or user satisfaction. If the remaining items are non-critical, the team can proceed with the release while potentially scheduling the unfinished items for future iterations.
Incorrect
This approach allows the project team to assess whether the outstanding backlog items are essential for the product’s functionality or user satisfaction. If the remaining items are non-critical, the team can proceed with the release while potentially scheduling the unfinished items for future iterations.
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Question 59 of 75
59. Question
The most commonly used logical dependency between two activities in a project plan is:
Correct
The Finish-to-start dependency consists of a successor activity that cannot start until the predecessor activity finishes.
Incorrect
The Finish-to-start dependency consists of a successor activity that cannot start until the predecessor activity finishes.
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Question 60 of 75
60. Question
______ is the amount of time a successor task can be advanced before the predecessor task is completed.
Correct
Lead is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.
Option B: Lag is the amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.
Options A, D: Delay and overlap are not official terms used by PMI.
Incorrect
Lead is the amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.
Option B: Lag is the amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.
Options A, D: Delay and overlap are not official terms used by PMI.
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Question 61 of 75
61. Question
A project manager estimated the project timeline to end within 4 months +/- 1 month, where should this estimate be documented?
Correct
Basis of estimates are supporting documents that detail the assumptions, constraints, ranges, and confidence levels in establishing project estimates.
Option A: A risk register is a centralized repository for documenting and managing risk which is an output of risk management processes. It includes details such as the assigned risk owner, probability, impact, risk score, and planned responses.
Option B: The assumption log records all the assumptions and the constraints of the project.
Incorrect
Basis of estimates are supporting documents that detail the assumptions, constraints, ranges, and confidence levels in establishing project estimates.
Option A: A risk register is a centralized repository for documenting and managing risk which is an output of risk management processes. It includes details such as the assigned risk owner, probability, impact, risk score, and planned responses.
Option B: The assumption log records all the assumptions and the constraints of the project.
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Question 62 of 75
62. Question
In a construction project for a new office building, the project manager after analysis and consultations with the engineers and suppliers estimates the cost to be at $75,000 with a range of possible variance of +/- 5%. What type of estimate is described in this example?
Correct
The project manager in this situation has thoroughly reviewed the project requirements and completed a cost analysis to finalize the project budget estimation.
Incorrect
The project manager in this situation has thoroughly reviewed the project requirements and completed a cost analysis to finalize the project budget estimation.
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Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Due to a lack of knowledge of the involved technology, an agile team was unable to estimate the number of user stories needed in the subsequent iteration. What tool or technique can the project manager recommend to overcome such a problem?
Correct
The project manager should recommend using Spike. As a research story, a spike represents a time-boxed effort that is dedicated to learning, architecture & design, prototypes, etc. to better understand critical technical or functional details and thus make accurate estimations (Agile practice guide, page 56).
Incorrect
The project manager should recommend using Spike. As a research story, a spike represents a time-boxed effort that is dedicated to learning, architecture & design, prototypes, etc. to better understand critical technical or functional details and thus make accurate estimations (Agile practice guide, page 56).
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Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Which measure indicates the cost performance needed with the remaining resources to meet the financial goal of the project?
Correct
To complete performance index (TCPI) answers the question: “What performance rate must be achieved on the remaining work within the remaining resources to stay within budget?” Greater than one indicates harder to complete; less than one indicates easier to complete.
Incorrect
To complete performance index (TCPI) answers the question: “What performance rate must be achieved on the remaining work within the remaining resources to stay within budget?” Greater than one indicates harder to complete; less than one indicates easier to complete.
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Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Which document typically includes the business analysis approach, level of effort, and stakeholder engagement plan?
Correct
A business analysis plan typically includes the business analysis approach, the level of effort, and the stakeholder engagement plan. It provides a summary of all key decisions regarding the business analysis work, such as stakeholder engagement and requirements management (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 134).
Incorrect
A business analysis plan typically includes the business analysis approach, the level of effort, and the stakeholder engagement plan. It provides a summary of all key decisions regarding the business analysis work, such as stakeholder engagement and requirements management (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 134).
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Question 66 of 75
66. Question
A project manager implemented the project management plan meticulously but she was struggling with leading the project team effectively. Talking to her mentor, the project manager was advised to further focus on developing her leadership skills. In this situation, leadership means:
Correct
Successful leaders are able to communicate the project vision to their team so that everyone has a shared vision of the bigger picture. When the whole project team understands this vision, individuals are able to see where they fit in and how each of them contributes to the success of the project (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 23-25).
Incorrect
Successful leaders are able to communicate the project vision to their team so that everyone has a shared vision of the bigger picture. When the whole project team understands this vision, individuals are able to see where they fit in and how each of them contributes to the success of the project (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 23-25).
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Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Which process is performed periodically as needed?
Correct
Processes fall into three categories:
Processes used once or at predefined points in the project.
Processes that are performed periodically as needed.
Processes that are performed continuously throughout the project.
Acquire resources is performed as resources are needed, therefore it falls under the category of processes that are performed periodically as needed.
Option A: Develop project charter is performed once at a predefined point in the project.
Option B, C: Most of the monitoring and controlling processes are under the category of processes that are performed continuously throughout the project.
Incorrect
Processes fall into three categories:
Processes used once or at predefined points in the project.
Processes that are performed periodically as needed.
Processes that are performed continuously throughout the project.
Acquire resources is performed as resources are needed, therefore it falls under the category of processes that are performed periodically as needed.
Option A: Develop project charter is performed once at a predefined point in the project.
Option B, C: Most of the monitoring and controlling processes are under the category of processes that are performed continuously throughout the project.
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Question 68 of 75
68. Question
When managing communications, what are the effective techniques the project manager can use? (Select two)
Correct
The project manager should excel in active listening by acknowledging, clarifying, confirming, and addressing barriers that hinder understanding.
The project manager should also possess the ability to build consensus, navigate obstacles, and sustain interest and enthusiasm within the team.
Incorrect
The project manager should excel in active listening by acknowledging, clarifying, confirming, and addressing barriers that hinder understanding.
The project manager should also possess the ability to build consensus, navigate obstacles, and sustain interest and enthusiasm within the team.
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Question 69 of 75
69. Question
A project manager has been leading an Agile project for the last 9 months. When should the project manager stop tailoring the process?
Correct
A project manager who truly understands Agile knows that tailoring its processes is a continuous task. Projects are undertaken to create a unique service, product, or result which means that every project is unique. This is where process tailoring steps in. Process tailoring addresses the fact that project management processes are not “one size fits all”. Every project has its own process needs and based on that, the project team needs to conduct the needed adjustments to their processes. This can include adding, removing, or revising processes.
Incorrect
A project manager who truly understands Agile knows that tailoring its processes is a continuous task. Projects are undertaken to create a unique service, product, or result which means that every project is unique. This is where process tailoring steps in. Process tailoring addresses the fact that project management processes are not “one size fits all”. Every project has its own process needs and based on that, the project team needs to conduct the needed adjustments to their processes. This can include adding, removing, or revising processes.
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Question 70 of 75
70. Question
At the end of a sprint retrospective, a team member stated that the meeting output was almost the same as the previous ones and suggested canceling it or at least reducing its frequency.
What should the project manager do?
Correct
The sprint retrospective is one of the main scrum events, which aims to help the team adjust and improve their work processes over time. The project manager has to better facilitate the meeting, engage team members, solicit and collect more feedback, check various metrics, and use different investigation techniques such as the why-why method to help them take future actionable measures accordingly.
Option A: Extending the sprint timebox denotes smoothing the problem rather than trying to solve it.
Options B & C: The project manager should not cancel the retrospective meeting nor reduce its frequency. Instead, the project manager should reflect on why the retrospective meeting is not driving the intended value to the team.
Incorrect
The sprint retrospective is one of the main scrum events, which aims to help the team adjust and improve their work processes over time. The project manager has to better facilitate the meeting, engage team members, solicit and collect more feedback, check various metrics, and use different investigation techniques such as the why-why method to help them take future actionable measures accordingly.
Option A: Extending the sprint timebox denotes smoothing the problem rather than trying to solve it.
Options B & C: The project manager should not cancel the retrospective meeting nor reduce its frequency. Instead, the project manager should reflect on why the retrospective meeting is not driving the intended value to the team.
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Question 71 of 75
71. Question
What is the key difference between a traceability matrix and an interaction matrix?
Correct
An interaction matrix is typically used as a one-time tool to evaluate the relationships and dependencies between various elements, such as requirements or components, at a specific point in time. It is not meant to be maintained or updated throughout the project; instead, it serves its purpose during a particular phase of the analysis. This distinguishes it from other project documents that may evolve over time, like a traceability matrix, which is maintained throughout the project to ensure ongoing alignment of requirements (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 196).
Incorrect
An interaction matrix is typically used as a one-time tool to evaluate the relationships and dependencies between various elements, such as requirements or components, at a specific point in time. It is not meant to be maintained or updated throughout the project; instead, it serves its purpose during a particular phase of the analysis. This distinguishes it from other project documents that may evolve over time, like a traceability matrix, which is maintained throughout the project to ensure ongoing alignment of requirements (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 196).
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Question 72 of 75
72. Question
Which action is included in the cost control process?
Correct
Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline is a key action in the cost control process.
Incorrect
Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline is a key action in the cost control process.
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Question 73 of 75
73. Question
A project manager is managing a project with 8 stakeholders, how many communication channels exist?
Correct
The communications channels formula is N * (N-1) / 2, where N is the number of stakeholders. Using this formula 8 * (8-1) / 2 , we get 28 communication channels.
Incorrect
The communications channels formula is N * (N-1) / 2, where N is the number of stakeholders. Using this formula 8 * (8-1) / 2 , we get 28 communication channels.
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Question 74 of 75
74. Question
A big user story is commonly known as:
Correct
Big user stories or large-scale features are known as Epics. Epics usually involve a high-level feature, requirement, or customer request with a few lines of description, as they might only depict the final desired output. Epics could expand over months and even take over an entire release or several releases.
Incorrect
Big user stories or large-scale features are known as Epics. Epics usually involve a high-level feature, requirement, or customer request with a few lines of description, as they might only depict the final desired output. Epics could expand over months and even take over an entire release or several releases.
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Question 75 of 75
75. Question
In a network diagram, the ________________ is based on the assumption that resources will always be available whenever they are needed.
Correct
Among the drawbacks of the critical path method is the assumption that all project resources are available all the time, not taking into consideration resource dependencies.
Incorrect
Among the drawbacks of the critical path method is the assumption that all project resources are available all the time, not taking into consideration resource dependencies.
How can I best prepare for the CAPM mock exam?
To best prepare for the CAPM mock test, it is extremely important to adopt a strategic strategy that includes both content study and practice for the exam. You must begin by going through the course material thoroughly, with special emphasis on the four domains of the CAPM exam. Concentrate on learning concepts like project management basics, predictive methodologies, agile frameworks, and business analysis frameworks. While you learn, note down key points to solidify your learning.
You can also practice the mock exams with time management by taking a mock test in a peaceful environment, that helps you become familiar and confident with all the topics. Once you have finished a mock test, review all the incorrect questions to know where you went wrong and learn from your errors. Also, utilize official website or sources such as the PMBOK guide to know the correct answers.