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CAPM Mock Test 3
CAPM Mock Test 3
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CAPM Mock Test 3
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Question 1 of 150
1. Question
A project manager joined a new project and wanted to check the roles and responsibilities of the project team, their hierarchical links, and how they should be managed. What should the project manager refer to?
Correct
The Resource Management Plan is where the approach to handling and structuring roles, responsibilities, and team management in a project is documented.
Incorrect
The Resource Management Plan is where the approach to handling and structuring roles, responsibilities, and team management in a project is documented.
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Question 2 of 150
2. Question
The process of identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities is called:
Correct
Sequencing activities involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among project activities.
Incorrect
Sequencing activities involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among project activities.
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Question 3 of 150
3. Question
A project team faced certain conditions that are beyond their control which influenced the project plan and execution. What are these conditions called?
Correct
Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) are conditions not under the control of the project team that can influence or constrain the project.
Incorrect
Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) are conditions not under the control of the project team that can influence or constrain the project.
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Question 4 of 150
4. Question
When is the most appropriate time for an agile team to review the Definition of Done?
Correct
Definition of Done is a checklist of the activities that the team is expected to successfully complete before it can declare its work to be “done”. The product owner and the development team agree upon the details of the Definition of Done in order to clarify what shippability means and the work each user story requires.
During the Sprint Retrospective, the team inspects how the last Sprint went with regard to individuals, interactions, processes, tools, and Definition of Done.
Incorrect
Definition of Done is a checklist of the activities that the team is expected to successfully complete before it can declare its work to be “done”. The product owner and the development team agree upon the details of the Definition of Done in order to clarify what shippability means and the work each user story requires.
During the Sprint Retrospective, the team inspects how the last Sprint went with regard to individuals, interactions, processes, tools, and Definition of Done.
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Question 5 of 150
5. Question
Between two Sprints, what activities would a Product Owner typically undertake?
Correct
A sprint is an event that has a fixed duration of one month or less to create consistency. A new Sprint starts immediately after the conclusion of the previous Sprint.
Incorrect
A sprint is an event that has a fixed duration of one month or less to create consistency. A new Sprint starts immediately after the conclusion of the previous Sprint.
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Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Which statement is true about a portfolio?
Correct
A portfolio is a collection of projects, programs, and operational work that are managed together to achieve strategic business goals. These projects and programs do not necessarily have to be related or interdependent; rather, they are grouped to align with an organization’s broader objectives
Incorrect
A portfolio is a collection of projects, programs, and operational work that are managed together to achieve strategic business goals. These projects and programs do not necessarily have to be related or interdependent; rather, they are grouped to align with an organization’s broader objectives
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Question 7 of 150
7. Question
Which of the following techniques is primarily used to evaluate and select vendors?
Correct
Source Selection Criteria are developed as an output of the Plan Procurement Management process to define how buyer decisions will be made (Process groups guide, page 238).
Incorrect
Source Selection Criteria are developed as an output of the Plan Procurement Management process to define how buyer decisions will be made (Process groups guide, page 238).
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Question 8 of 150
8. Question
Who is responsible for managing the progress of work during a Sprint?
Correct
The Development Team uses the Daily Scrum to inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and to inspect how progress is trending toward completing the work in the Sprint Backlog.
Incorrect
The Development Team uses the Daily Scrum to inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and to inspect how progress is trending toward completing the work in the Sprint Backlog.
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Question 9 of 150
9. Question
A business analyst is splitting a large user story into smaller, manageable parts to be delivered within a single iteration. What technique is the business analyst using?
Correct
Story slicing is a technique used for breaking down large tasks, such as epics or user stories, into smaller, more manageable parts (PMI guide to business analysis, page 214).
Incorrect
Story slicing is a technique used for breaking down large tasks, such as epics or user stories, into smaller, more manageable parts (PMI guide to business analysis, page 214).
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Question 10 of 150
10. Question
After the second sprint, a product owner noticed that the market needs may be changing, and the product may not fit the new market needs. What should the product owner do next?
Correct
The product owner should first review the backlog, which contains prioritized features and tasks, to assess how the changing market needs will impact the product. This allows for a well-informed decision on whether to adjust the product scope or continue as planned.
Incorrect
The product owner should first review the backlog, which contains prioritized features and tasks, to assess how the changing market needs will impact the product. This allows for a well-informed decision on whether to adjust the product scope or continue as planned.
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Question 11 of 150
11. Question
Which document is used to ensure that each product requirement is linked to the deliverables that address it?
Correct
The Requirements Traceability Matrix links product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them, ensuring that each requirement is fulfilled.
Option A: Requirements Documentation describes the requirements but does not link them to deliverables.
Incorrect
The Requirements Traceability Matrix links product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them, ensuring that each requirement is fulfilled.
Option A: Requirements Documentation describes the requirements but does not link them to deliverables.
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Question 12 of 150
12. Question
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and performance measurement rules are examples of elements defined in:
Correct
These elements are defined in the Cost Management Plan, which guides how the project’s costs will be managed and controlled (PMI process groups, page 208).
Incorrect
These elements are defined in the Cost Management Plan, which guides how the project’s costs will be managed and controlled (PMI process groups, page 208).
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Question 13 of 150
13. Question
What type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices or when a specific sequence is preferred over other acceptable sequences?
Correct
Discretionary dependencies are established based on best practices or when a specific sequence is desired, even though other sequences may be acceptable.
Incorrect
Discretionary dependencies are established based on best practices or when a specific sequence is desired, even though other sequences may be acceptable.
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Question 14 of 150
14. Question
Sensitivity analysis is usually displayed in the form of:
Correct
A Tornado Diagram is a common way to display sensitivity analysis, showing the impact of changing one variable at a time on the project’s outcome.
Incorrect
A Tornado Diagram is a common way to display sensitivity analysis, showing the impact of changing one variable at a time on the project’s outcome.
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Question 15 of 150
15. Question
The control process group includes processes that:
Correct
The Control Process Group includes processes that track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project, ensuring that everything aligns with the project management plan.
Incorrect
The Control Process Group includes processes that track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project, ensuring that everything aligns with the project management plan.
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Question 16 of 150
16. Question
Typical project outcomes include:
Correct
A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result (PMI process groups, page 4).
Incorrect
A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result (PMI process groups, page 4).
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Question 17 of 150
17. Question
What communication technique does a project manager use to create consensus and overcome obstacles?
Correct
Facilitation is a key communication technique used by project managers to create consensus and overcome obstacles during project discussions and decision-making processes.
Incorrect
Facilitation is a key communication technique used by project managers to create consensus and overcome obstacles during project discussions and decision-making processes.
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Question 18 of 150
18. Question
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
Correct
The project team determines discretionary dependencies during the Sequence Activities process. Discretionary dependencies are established based on best practices or preferences.
Incorrect
The project team determines discretionary dependencies during the Sequence Activities process. Discretionary dependencies are established based on best practices or preferences.
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Question 19 of 150
19. Question
A project manager wants to check the resources linked to work packages. What should the project manager refer to?
Correct
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), or RACI chart, shows resources linked to work packages, outlining who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task.
Incorrect
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), or RACI chart, shows resources linked to work packages, outlining who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task.
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Question 20 of 150
20. Question
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as more information becomes available is called:
Correct
Progressive Elaboration is the iterative process of adding detail to the project management plan as more specific information becomes available.
Incorrect
Progressive Elaboration is the iterative process of adding detail to the project management plan as more specific information becomes available.
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Question 21 of 150
21. Question
An effective conflict resolution technique that integrates multiple viewpoints to reach consensus and commitment is:
Correct
Collaboration/Problem Solving is the most effective conflict resolution technique as it involves working together to integrate multiple viewpoints and reach a consensus that all parties are committed to.
Incorrect
Collaboration/Problem Solving is the most effective conflict resolution technique as it involves working together to integrate multiple viewpoints and reach a consensus that all parties are committed to.
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Question 22 of 150
22. Question
A temporary endeavor creating a unique product, service or result is called:
Correct
A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
Option B: A plan is a document that outlines how a project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.
Incorrect
A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
Option B: A plan is a document that outlines how a project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.
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Question 23 of 150
23. Question
The status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasts to complete are examples of:
Correct
Work Performance Information includes the status of deliverables, the implementation status of change requests, and forecasts to complete the project.
Incorrect
Work Performance Information includes the status of deliverables, the implementation status of change requests, and forecasts to complete the project.
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Question 24 of 150
24. Question
When can a Sprint be canceled by the Development Team?
Correct
Only the Product Owner has the authority to cancel the Sprint. The Product Owner may do so from the influence of stakeholders, the Development Team, or the Scrum Master.
Incorrect
Only the Product Owner has the authority to cancel the Sprint. The Product Owner may do so from the influence of stakeholders, the Development Team, or the Scrum Master.
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Question 25 of 150
25. Question
Which process group focuses on establishing the scope of the project, refining the objectives, and defining the course of action required to achieve the project’s objectives:
Correct
The Planning process group focuses on establishing the project’s scope, refining objectives, and defining the course of action required to achieve the project’s objectives.
Incorrect
The Planning process group focuses on establishing the project’s scope, refining objectives, and defining the course of action required to achieve the project’s objectives.
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Question 26 of 150
26. Question
When should a Sprint Retrospective be held?
Correct
A Sprint Retrospective should be held at the end of each sprint, after the Sprint Review and before the next Sprint Planning. This meeting allows the team to reflect on the sprint, discuss what went well and what didn’t, and identify improvements for the next sprint.
Incorrect
A Sprint Retrospective should be held at the end of each sprint, after the Sprint Review and before the next Sprint Planning. This meeting allows the team to reflect on the sprint, discuss what went well and what didn’t, and identify improvements for the next sprint.
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Question 27 of 150
27. Question
When is the Sprint Backlog created?
Correct
The Sprint Backlog consists of selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint, along with a plan to deliver the product increment and achieve the Sprint Goal. It’s created during the Sprint Planning meeting.
Option D: The product backlog is created at the start of the project, not the sprint backlog.
Incorrect
The Sprint Backlog consists of selected Product Backlog items for the Sprint, along with a plan to deliver the product increment and achieve the Sprint Goal. It’s created during the Sprint Planning meeting.
Option D: The product backlog is created at the start of the project, not the sprint backlog.
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Question 28 of 150
28. Question
A project manager is about closing a project. What should the project manager use?
Correct
Accepted deliverables are an input to the Close Project or Phase process, ensuring that the deliverables meet the requirements and have been accepted by the customer.
Options B, C, D: All these artifacts: Final product or service, Updated lessons learned register, and Final report are outputs of the project closure process.
Incorrect
Accepted deliverables are an input to the Close Project or Phase process, ensuring that the deliverables meet the requirements and have been accepted by the customer.
Options B, C, D: All these artifacts: Final product or service, Updated lessons learned register, and Final report are outputs of the project closure process.
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Question 29 of 150
29. Question
What does a Scrum Team consist of? (Select three)
Correct
The Scrum Team consists of one Scrum Master, one Product Owner, and Developers.
Incorrect
The Scrum Team consists of one Scrum Master, one Product Owner, and Developers.
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Question 30 of 150
30. Question
External organizations that maintain special relationships with the company and provide specialized expertise are called:
Correct
Business Partners are external organizations that maintain a special relationship with the company and provide specialized expertise, services, or resources.
Incorrect
Business Partners are external organizations that maintain a special relationship with the company and provide specialized expertise, services, or resources.
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Question 31 of 150
31. Question
Which of the following best represents the role of a program manager?
Correct
A program manager is responsible for managing a collection of related projects (a program) that work together to deliver broader benefits and strategic value to the organization. The focus is on aligning these projects to contribute to larger organizational objectives, rather than focusing on just one project.
Options A & D: “Delivering a specific product or service within budget and time constraints” and “Supervising a single project through its completion” both describe the role of a project manager.
Option C: “Managing all organizational initiatives to align with corporate strategy” describes the role of a portfolio manager.
Incorrect
A program manager is responsible for managing a collection of related projects (a program) that work together to deliver broader benefits and strategic value to the organization. The focus is on aligning these projects to contribute to larger organizational objectives, rather than focusing on just one project.
Options A & D: “Delivering a specific product or service within budget and time constraints” and “Supervising a single project through its completion” both describe the role of a project manager.
Option C: “Managing all organizational initiatives to align with corporate strategy” describes the role of a portfolio manager.
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Question 32 of 150
32. Question
In a project, total float measures:
Correct
Total float measures the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project’s end date.
Incorrect
Total float measures the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project’s end date.
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Question 33 of 150
33. Question
Which knowledge area includes the closing process group?
Correct
Project Integration Management includes the Closing Process Group, which involves finalizing all activities across all project management process groups.
Incorrect
Project Integration Management includes the Closing Process Group, which involves finalizing all activities across all project management process groups.
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Question 34 of 150
34. Question
What can be used to describe the role of a Product Owner?
Correct
The Product Owner is responsible for maximizing the business value of the product resulting from the agile team’s work.
Incorrect
The Product Owner is responsible for maximizing the business value of the product resulting from the agile team’s work.
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Question 35 of 150
35. Question
What is the primary distinction between a project and operations?
Correct
A project is a temporary endeavor with a specific beginning and end, aimed at producing a unique product, service, or result. Once the project goals are achieved, it is concluded. Operations, on the other hand, are ongoing and repetitive activities performed to maintain and sustain the organization’s day-to-day business. They don’t have a defined start and end date, and their focus is on maintaining existing systems and processes.
Incorrect
A project is a temporary endeavor with a specific beginning and end, aimed at producing a unique product, service, or result. Once the project goals are achieved, it is concluded. Operations, on the other hand, are ongoing and repetitive activities performed to maintain and sustain the organization’s day-to-day business. They don’t have a defined start and end date, and their focus is on maintaining existing systems and processes.
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Question 36 of 150
36. Question
Which technique allows work to be executed at different levels of detail, depending on its position in the project lifecycle?
Correct
Rolling Wave Planning is a technique that allows planning to be done in waves, with near-term work planned in detail and future work planned at a higher level.
Incorrect
Rolling Wave Planning is a technique that allows planning to be done in waves, with near-term work planned in detail and future work planned at a higher level.
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Question 37 of 150
37. Question
What should the team deliver at the end of a Sprint?
Correct
The agile team is responsible for delivering an increment of working software that meets the Definition of Done. The Definition of Done creates a shared understanding of what activities should be completed for an increment to be accepted.
Incorrect
The agile team is responsible for delivering an increment of working software that meets the Definition of Done. The Definition of Done creates a shared understanding of what activities should be completed for an increment to be accepted.
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Question 38 of 150
38. Question
Which of the following techniques can be used to assess whether requirements are aligned with the product’s objectives?
Correct
Use cases describe how a system interacts with external entities (like users or other systems) to achieve specific goals. They help ensure that the requirements directly support the business objectives, making them the most suitable technique for this purpose.
Incorrect
Use cases describe how a system interacts with external entities (like users or other systems) to achieve specific goals. They help ensure that the requirements directly support the business objectives, making them the most suitable technique for this purpose.
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Question 39 of 150
39. Question
A business analyst has been tasked with developing a business case for a new portfolio management system. Which of the following elements will the business analyst need to include as input?
Correct
The situation statement describes the current state of affairs, the problem or opportunity, and the need for the new system. It sets the context for why the project is needed and what it aims to address, making it a crucial part of the business case.
Incorrect
The situation statement describes the current state of affairs, the problem or opportunity, and the need for the new system. It sets the context for why the project is needed and what it aims to address, making it a crucial part of the business case.
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Question 40 of 150
40. Question
Who is responsible for engaging internal stakeholders and customers in Scrum?
Correct
In Scrum, the Product Owner is responsible for engaging all stakeholders, including the customers and/or end users.
Incorrect
In Scrum, the Product Owner is responsible for engaging all stakeholders, including the customers and/or end users.
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Question 41 of 150
41. Question
During the sprint planning, the team decomposed a user story into four tasks. When working on the user story, a team member identified a fifth task. What should the team member do?
Correct
The project team is responsible for how to do the work. Therefore, if a new task is identified within the user story it could be immediately added.
Incorrect
The project team is responsible for how to do the work. Therefore, if a new task is identified within the user story it could be immediately added.
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Question 42 of 150
42. Question
Which of the following extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity:
Correct
Activity Attributes extend the description of the activity by identifying multiple components associated with each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, and resource requirements.
Incorrect
Activity Attributes extend the description of the activity by identifying multiple components associated with each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, and resource requirements.
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Question 43 of 150
43. Question
A key input to the stakeholder identification process is:
Correct
The Project Charter is a key input to the stakeholder identification process, as it provides high-level project information and identifies initial stakeholders.
Incorrect
The Project Charter is a key input to the stakeholder identification process, as it provides high-level project information and identifies initial stakeholders.
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Question 44 of 150
44. Question
“Identify Risks” is part of which process group:
Correct
Identify Risks is part of the Planning process group, where risks are identified and documented as part of the project’s risk management plan.
Incorrect
Identify Risks is part of the Planning process group, where risks are identified and documented as part of the project’s risk management plan.
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Question 45 of 150
45. Question
What should the Development Team do during the first Sprint? (Select two)
Correct
On each sprint, the Development team is committed to creating one or a few functionalities and delivering a potentially shippable product increment.
Incorrect
On each sprint, the Development team is committed to creating one or a few functionalities and delivering a potentially shippable product increment.
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Question 46 of 150
46. Question
A project team has identified several issues that could negatively impact the project delivery. The project manager is analyzing these issues and their interrelationships to understand the project’s overall complexity and develop a plan to address the challenges. Which technique is the project manager using?
Correct
Systems thinking involves understanding how various components and hindrances within a project interact with each other and affect the overall system. By examining how different challenges are related and contribute to the project’s complexity, the project manager can develop a comprehensive plan that addresses these interconnected issues.
Incorrect
Systems thinking involves understanding how various components and hindrances within a project interact with each other and affect the overall system. By examining how different challenges are related and contribute to the project’s complexity, the project manager can develop a comprehensive plan that addresses these interconnected issues.
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Question 47 of 150
47. Question
A logical relationship in which a ‘successor’ activity cannot start until a ‘predecessor’ activity finishes is called:
Correct
Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common logical relationship where the successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity has finished.
Incorrect
Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common logical relationship where the successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity has finished.
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Question 48 of 150
48. Question
Which type of contract allows both the seller and the buyer the opportunity to deviate from performance with financial incentives:
Correct
Fixed-Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contracts allow deviations from performance with financial incentives, encouraging the seller to meet or exceed certain performance targets.
Incorrect
Fixed-Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contracts allow deviations from performance with financial incentives, encouraging the seller to meet or exceed certain performance targets.
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Question 49 of 150
49. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of stakeholders in the creation of a product roadmap?
Correct
Stakeholders play a key role in the creation of a product roadmap by providing input on what features, priorities, and timelines should be included. Their feedback helps ensure that the roadmap aligns with their needs and expectations, and it guides the development process to meet the overall strategic goals of the organization.
Incorrect
Stakeholders play a key role in the creation of a product roadmap by providing input on what features, priorities, and timelines should be included. Their feedback helps ensure that the roadmap aligns with their needs and expectations, and it guides the development process to meet the overall strategic goals of the organization.
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Question 50 of 150
50. Question
In eXtreme programming, which of the following practices is NOT commonly used?
Correct
Feature team involves organizing teams based on specific features of a product. Feature team is used in Feature-driven development (FDD), and isn’t a common practice in XP. XP tends to focus more on practices like collective code ownership and maintaining a flat team structure rather than dividing teams by features.
Incorrect
Feature team involves organizing teams based on specific features of a product. Feature team is used in Feature-driven development (FDD), and isn’t a common practice in XP. XP tends to focus more on practices like collective code ownership and maintaining a flat team structure rather than dividing teams by features.
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Question 51 of 150
51. Question
Which method helps a group to generate the most ideas on a topic without evaluating their feasibility or practicality?
Correct
Brainstorming is designed to generate a large number of ideas in a short period of time. During brainstorming, ideas are generated without immediate evaluation or judgment, which encourages creativity and the free flow of thoughts.
Option A: Interviewing involves asking individuals questions to gather information and insights. It focuses on collecting data and opinions rather than generating a wide range of ideas.
Option C: Surveying uses questionnaires or polls to gather information from a large group of people. It is useful for collecting opinions or feedback but is not specifically designed for idea generation.
Incorrect
Brainstorming is designed to generate a large number of ideas in a short period of time. During brainstorming, ideas are generated without immediate evaluation or judgment, which encourages creativity and the free flow of thoughts.
Option A: Interviewing involves asking individuals questions to gather information and insights. It focuses on collecting data and opinions rather than generating a wide range of ideas.
Option C: Surveying uses questionnaires or polls to gather information from a large group of people. It is useful for collecting opinions or feedback but is not specifically designed for idea generation.
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Question 52 of 150
52. Question
A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) reveals that some requirements have not been tested. What should the business analyst do next?
Correct
Ensuring that all requirements have been tested and validated is important before proceeding with delivery. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is used to ensure that every requirement is accounted for and tested. IF some requirements have not been accounted for, it’s important to address this before moving forward in order to avoid issues with the final product.
Incorrect
Ensuring that all requirements have been tested and validated is important before proceeding with delivery. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is used to ensure that every requirement is accounted for and tested. IF some requirements have not been accounted for, it’s important to address this before moving forward in order to avoid issues with the final product.
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Question 53 of 150
53. Question
The skills needed for a project manager to motivate and encourage a team member, actively listen to their concerns, and persuade them to take actions, are called:
Correct
Communication Skills are critical for project managers to effectively manage teams, stakeholders, and project activities.
Incorrect
Communication Skills are critical for project managers to effectively manage teams, stakeholders, and project activities.
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Question 54 of 150
54. Question
Before moving forward to the development phase, the business analyst needs to ensure that all requirements are up to quality standards. What should the business analyst do?
Correct
Verifying requirements is the process of ensuring that all requirements are of a sufficient quality (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 175).
Option B: Requirements verification could be done via peer reviews, such as another business analyst, team lead, or quality control team member. However, asking the quality team to redesign the requirements means altering them, which is not appropriate.
Option D: Validating requirements is the process of checking that requirements meet business goals and objectives.
Incorrect
Verifying requirements is the process of ensuring that all requirements are of a sufficient quality (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 175).
Option B: Requirements verification could be done via peer reviews, such as another business analyst, team lead, or quality control team member. However, asking the quality team to redesign the requirements means altering them, which is not appropriate.
Option D: Validating requirements is the process of checking that requirements meet business goals and objectives.
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Question 55 of 150
55. Question
Which aspect of emotional intelligence involves the ability to regulate and control emotions?
Correct
Self-management in emotional intelligence refers to the ability to regulate and control one’s emotions. (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 26)
Option C: Self-awareness involves recognizing and understanding one’s own emotions.
Incorrect
Self-management in emotional intelligence refers to the ability to regulate and control one’s emotions. (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 26)
Option C: Self-awareness involves recognizing and understanding one’s own emotions.
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Question 56 of 150
56. Question
Which Agile framework is most associated with the concept of “sprints”?
Correct
Scrum is built around the concept of sprints, which are time-boxed iterations (usually 2-4 weeks) during which specific work is completed and made ready for review.
Incorrect
Scrum is built around the concept of sprints, which are time-boxed iterations (usually 2-4 weeks) during which specific work is completed and made ready for review.
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Question 57 of 150
57. Question
The zero duration of milestones in project planning is because milestones:
Correct
Milestones represent a moment in time, such as a significant project point or event, which is why they have zero duration.
Incorrect
Milestones represent a moment in time, such as a significant project point or event, which is why they have zero duration.
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Question 58 of 150
58. Question
After the implementation of the new system, a business analyst is planning to validate solution results to determine if it meets the expected objectives. What is the most effective technique for collecting feedback from users about their experience with the new system?
Correct
Surveys are a direct method for collecting feedback from a large group of people efficiently. They can be designed to gather specific information about employees’ experiences, satisfaction, and issues with the new system.
Incorrect
Surveys are a direct method for collecting feedback from a large group of people efficiently. They can be designed to gather specific information about employees’ experiences, satisfaction, and issues with the new system.
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Question 59 of 150
59. Question
Which group decision-making technique involves experts providing estimates in multiple rounds, followed by team discussions, to reach consensus?
Correct
The Delphi technique is a group decision-making process where subject matter experts provide estimates individually over several rounds. After each round, the estimates are discussed by the team, and the process repeats until a consensus is reached. (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 178)
Incorrect
The Delphi technique is a group decision-making process where subject matter experts provide estimates individually over several rounds. After each round, the estimates are discussed by the team, and the process repeats until a consensus is reached. (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 178)
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Question 60 of 150
60. Question
In Scrum, what sprint burndown chart is used to track?
Correct
A sprint burndown chart is a chart that shows the remaining amount in the sprint backlog. Time is shown on the horizontal axis and the remaining work on the vertical axis. As time progresses and items are drawn from the sprint backlog and completed, a plot line showing work remaining may be expected to fall.
Incorrect
A sprint burndown chart is a chart that shows the remaining amount in the sprint backlog. Time is shown on the horizontal axis and the remaining work on the vertical axis. As time progresses and items are drawn from the sprint backlog and completed, a plot line showing work remaining may be expected to fall.
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Question 61 of 150
61. Question
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and good financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill:
Correct
Motivation involves ensuring that team members are satisfied with their job, feel challenged, and are compensated fairly, which helps keep them engaged and productive.
Option A: Influence involves persuading others to act but does not directly relate to job satisfaction or compensation.
Option C: Negotiation involves reaching agreements that satisfy all parties, not specifically related to job satisfaction.
Incorrect
Motivation involves ensuring that team members are satisfied with their job, feel challenged, and are compensated fairly, which helps keep them engaged and productive.
Option A: Influence involves persuading others to act but does not directly relate to job satisfaction or compensation.
Option C: Negotiation involves reaching agreements that satisfy all parties, not specifically related to job satisfaction.
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Question 62 of 150
62. Question
A product backlog that contains unfinished high-priority items indicates that:
Correct
A product backlog is a prioritized list of work for the development team. High-priority items typically represent critical features or requirements that must be completed for the product to be considered ready for delivery. If high-priority items are unfinished, it indicates that the product may not be ready for delivery until these critical items are completed and accepted by stakeholders.
Incorrect
A product backlog is a prioritized list of work for the development team. High-priority items typically represent critical features or requirements that must be completed for the product to be considered ready for delivery. If high-priority items are unfinished, it indicates that the product may not be ready for delivery until these critical items are completed and accepted by stakeholders.
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Question 63 of 150
63. Question
The following is a network diagram for a project. What is the project’s duration?
Correct
The project’s duration is 10 days, which is calculated based on the critical path—the longest path through the network diagram, determining the shortest time to complete the project.
Incorrect
The project’s duration is 10 days, which is calculated based on the critical path—the longest path through the network diagram, determining the shortest time to complete the project.
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Question 64 of 150
64. Question
Which of the following activities would most likely be classified as operations?
Correct
Manufacturing a product regularly is an example of operational work because it involves continuous production.
Incorrect
Manufacturing a product regularly is an example of operational work because it involves continuous production.
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Question 65 of 150
65. Question
Which Agile framework is specifically designed for scaling Agile across large enterprises?
Correct
SAFe (Scaled agile Framework) focuses on providing a knowledge base of patterns for scaling development work across all levels of the enterprise. (Agile practice Guide, page 113)
Option A: Scrum of scrums is a technique used to scale Scrum to larger teams by having multiple Scrum teams collaborate and not a full framework designed for enterprise-scale.
Incorrect
SAFe (Scaled agile Framework) focuses on providing a knowledge base of patterns for scaling development work across all levels of the enterprise. (Agile practice Guide, page 113)
Option A: Scrum of scrums is a technique used to scale Scrum to larger teams by having multiple Scrum teams collaborate and not a full framework designed for enterprise-scale.
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Question 66 of 150
66. Question
A graphical display of project team members and their hierarchical links is called:
Correct
The Project Organization Chart is a graphical display that shows project team members and their hierarchical links within the project (PMI Process Group, Page 229).
Incorrect
The Project Organization Chart is a graphical display that shows project team members and their hierarchical links within the project (PMI Process Group, Page 229).
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Question 67 of 150
67. Question
A business analyst is tasked with improving the efficiency of customer support service. The business analyst anticipated that the average response time to customer inquiries would decrease as changes were implemented, but instead, it has increased. What method should the business analyst use to identify the underlying issue?
Correct
Root cause analysis involves systematically investigating the underlying causes of problems or issues. It helps identify why the response time has increased and what changes or factors might have led to this outcome. Techniques like the “Five Whys” or fishbone diagrams can be used within this method.
Incorrect
Root cause analysis involves systematically investigating the underlying causes of problems or issues. It helps identify why the response time has increased and what changes or factors might have led to this outcome. Techniques like the “Five Whys” or fishbone diagrams can be used within this method.
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Question 68 of 150
68. Question
What interpersonal skill should the project manager have in order to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
Correct
Influence is the key interpersonal skill that involves sharing power and using interpersonal skills to convince others to work towards common goals.
Incorrect
Influence is the key interpersonal skill that involves sharing power and using interpersonal skills to convince others to work towards common goals.
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Question 69 of 150
69. Question
Which statement is true about scope creep?
Correct
Scope creep refers to the uncontrolled expansion or changes in a project’s scope without corresponding adjustments to time, cost, and resources. This often happens when additional features or requirements are added to the project incrementally, which can lead to delays and budget overruns.
Incorrect
Scope creep refers to the uncontrolled expansion or changes in a project’s scope without corresponding adjustments to time, cost, and resources. This often happens when additional features or requirements are added to the project incrementally, which can lead to delays and budget overruns.
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Question 70 of 150
70. Question
What is the purpose of a Sprint Review?
Correct
The purpose of the Sprint Review is to inspect the outcome of the Sprint and determine future adaptations. The Scrum Team presents the results of their work to key stakeholders and progress toward the Product Goal is discussed.
Option D: Inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal is the purpose of a daily standup.
Incorrect
The purpose of the Sprint Review is to inspect the outcome of the Sprint and determine future adaptations. The Scrum Team presents the results of their work to key stakeholders and progress toward the Product Goal is discussed.
Option D: Inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal is the purpose of a daily standup.
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Question 71 of 150
71. Question
During the planning phase, a project manager identified several risks. How should the project manager deal with these risks during project execution? (Select two)
Correct
The project manager should continuously monitor the identified risks to assess any changes in their likelihood or impact. When risks materialize, the project manager should execute the pre-developed risk response plans to reduce the negative impact on the project and maintain progress.
Option A: An issue log is used to document problems or issues that have already occurred. Risks are typically documented in a risk register.
Option B: Risk response strategies should already have been developed during the planning phase when the risks were first identified. During execution, the focus should be on implementing and refining these strategies if needed, not creating them from scratch.
Option D: The project manager should take proactive steps to manage risks before they turn into actual issues.
Incorrect
The project manager should continuously monitor the identified risks to assess any changes in their likelihood or impact. When risks materialize, the project manager should execute the pre-developed risk response plans to reduce the negative impact on the project and maintain progress.
Option A: An issue log is used to document problems or issues that have already occurred. Risks are typically documented in a risk register.
Option B: Risk response strategies should already have been developed during the planning phase when the risks were first identified. During execution, the focus should be on implementing and refining these strategies if needed, not creating them from scratch.
Option D: The project manager should take proactive steps to manage risks before they turn into actual issues.
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Question 72 of 150
72. Question
What should a business analyst do after discovering two conflicting requirements?
Correct
The primary step is to bring the conflict to the attention of the relevant stakeholders. The business analyst should work with stakeholders to understand the implications of the conflict and facilitate a resolution that aligns with the project’s constraints and objectives.
Incorrect
The primary step is to bring the conflict to the attention of the relevant stakeholders. The business analyst should work with stakeholders to understand the implications of the conflict and facilitate a resolution that aligns with the project’s constraints and objectives.
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Question 73 of 150
73. Question
What is the primary difference between a risk and an issue?
Correct
A risk is a potential event that may or may not occur in the future. It can be either positive (opportunity) or negative (threat), and the focus is on mitigating or exploiting its potential impact. On the other hand, An issue is a problem or event that has already occurred and requires immediate attention to resolve or manage it.
Incorrect
A risk is a potential event that may or may not occur in the future. It can be either positive (opportunity) or negative (threat), and the focus is on mitigating or exploiting its potential impact. On the other hand, An issue is a problem or event that has already occurred and requires immediate attention to resolve or manage it.
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Question 74 of 150
74. Question
In Scrum, what should a test team be responsible for? (Select two)
Correct
Test team is not a role in Scrum; only three roles are defined in Scrum: the Development Team, the Scrum Master, and the Product Owner.
Incorrect
Test team is not a role in Scrum; only three roles are defined in Scrum: the Development Team, the Scrum Master, and the Product Owner.
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Question 75 of 150
75. Question
In an agile project, which stakeholder is responsible for approving the deliverables?
Correct
As the recipient of the project’s deliverables, the product owner is responsible for approving the deliverables of agile projects.
Incorrect
As the recipient of the project’s deliverables, the product owner is responsible for approving the deliverables of agile projects.
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Question 76 of 150
76. Question
Which of the following involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements:
Correct
Collect Requirements is the process that involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
Incorrect
Collect Requirements is the process that involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
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Question 77 of 150
77. Question
An assumption is best described as:
Correct
An assumption is something that is accepted as true or certain for the purpose of planning and execution, even though it might not have been proven or verified. Assumptions are made to facilitate the project’s progress and planning but need to be monitored and validated as the project progresses.
Incorrect
An assumption is something that is accepted as true or certain for the purpose of planning and execution, even though it might not have been proven or verified. Assumptions are made to facilitate the project’s progress and planning but need to be monitored and validated as the project progresses.
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Question 78 of 150
78. Question
Which of the following is a key benefit of the requirements traceability matrix (RTM)?
Correct
A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) helps track and ensure that every project requirement is addressed and linked to corresponding deliverables. It provides a way to verify that all requirements have been met and facilitates easier validation and acceptance by stakeholders, ensuring that the final product aligns with the agreed-upon specifications.
Incorrect
A requirements traceability matrix (RTM) helps track and ensure that every project requirement is addressed and linked to corresponding deliverables. It provides a way to verify that all requirements have been met and facilitates easier validation and acceptance by stakeholders, ensuring that the final product aligns with the agreed-upon specifications.
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Question 79 of 150
79. Question
To paint the office, the painter starts preparing the walls while choosing the paint with the office owner. This is an example of:
Correct
Lead refers to an acceleration of the successor activity. In this case, the painter starts preparing the walls (successor activity) while still choosing the paint (predecessor activity).
Incorrect
Lead refers to an acceleration of the successor activity. In this case, the painter starts preparing the walls (successor activity) while still choosing the paint (predecessor activity).
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Question 80 of 150
80. Question
The development team has delivered a completed solution. The quality assurance team has passed the solution. What should the business analyst do next?
Correct
After the software developers deliver a completed solution and the quality assurance team passes it, the next step for the business analyst is to conduct user acceptance testing (UAT). UAT ensures that the solution meets the business requirements and works as intended for end users. It involves key stakeholders and users verifying that the system functions correctly and aligns with their expectations before the solution is deployed.
Incorrect
After the software developers deliver a completed solution and the quality assurance team passes it, the next step for the business analyst is to conduct user acceptance testing (UAT). UAT ensures that the solution meets the business requirements and works as intended for end users. It involves key stakeholders and users verifying that the system functions correctly and aligns with their expectations before the solution is deployed.
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Question 81 of 150
81. Question
In Scrum, who should start the daily standup?
Correct
The Development Team is responsible for managing and facilitating their standup meeting. This improves ownership and self-management.
Incorrect
The Development Team is responsible for managing and facilitating their standup meeting. This improves ownership and self-management.
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Question 82 of 150
82. Question
In business analysis, a complete set of processes associated with a particular function is known as:
Correct
Knowledge Areas are fields or areas of specialization that are commonly employed when performing business analysis. A Knowledge Area is a set of processes associated with a particular function (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 22).
Option B: A Process Group focuses on the sequence or phase of the project and describes the categorization of processes within the project life cycle rather than grouping the processes by their purpose or function.
Option D: Portfolio Management is the management of multiple programs and projects aligned with organizational strategy.
Incorrect
Knowledge Areas are fields or areas of specialization that are commonly employed when performing business analysis. A Knowledge Area is a set of processes associated with a particular function (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 22).
Option B: A Process Group focuses on the sequence or phase of the project and describes the categorization of processes within the project life cycle rather than grouping the processes by their purpose or function.
Option D: Portfolio Management is the management of multiple programs and projects aligned with organizational strategy.
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Question 83 of 150
83. Question
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
Correct
“Mitigate” involves taking actions to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk.
Incorrect
“Mitigate” involves taking actions to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk.
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Question 84 of 150
84. Question
A project manager notices frequent information requests from stakeholders. What does it indicate?
Correct
Frequent requests from stakeholders often indicate that they are not receiving the information they need in a timely or effective manner, suggesting the communication plan may need refinement. A good communication plan ensures that stakeholders receive necessary updates through formal channels, reducing the need for unscheduled communication (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 73).
Incorrect
Frequent requests from stakeholders often indicate that they are not receiving the information they need in a timely or effective manner, suggesting the communication plan may need refinement. A good communication plan ensures that stakeholders receive necessary updates through formal channels, reducing the need for unscheduled communication (PMBOK 7th Edition, page 73).
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Question 85 of 150
85. Question
Project management processes ensure:
Correct
Project management processes provide effective means to achieve project objectives, ensuring that the project meets its goals.
Incorrect
Project management processes provide effective means to achieve project objectives, ensuring that the project meets its goals.
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Question 86 of 150
86. Question
Which of the following is an output of the Sprint Planning meeting? (Select two)
Correct
During the sprint planning meeting, the product owner and the development team define the Sprint Backlog & the Sprint Goal. As the Developers work on the selected user stories during the Sprint, they keep the Sprint Goal in mind.
Incorrect
During the sprint planning meeting, the product owner and the development team define the Sprint Backlog & the Sprint Goal. As the Developers work on the selected user stories during the Sprint, they keep the Sprint Goal in mind.
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Question 87 of 150
87. Question
What does the project management plan include?
Correct
The elements of a project management plan include various subsidiary plans such as the Change Management Plan, Quality Management Plan, and Scope Management Plan.
Incorrect
The elements of a project management plan include various subsidiary plans such as the Change Management Plan, Quality Management Plan, and Scope Management Plan.
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Question 88 of 150
88. Question
A project manager must communicate resolved project-related issues to stakeholders by updating the:
Correct
The Issue Log is updated to communicate resolved project-related issues to stakeholders
Incorrect
The Issue Log is updated to communicate resolved project-related issues to stakeholders
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Question 89 of 150
89. Question
In adaptive approaches, what tool is used to capture stakeholder requirements from the user’s perspective, focusing on the value perceived by the user?
Correct
A User Story is a brief, simple description of a feature told from the perspective of the person who desires the capability, usually a user or customer. It is a tool commonly used in adaptive approaches, like Agile, to capture stakeholder requirements in the form of “As a [type of user], I want [some goal] so that [some reason].” The user story focuses on the value to the user and what they need from the system. (PMI guide to business analysis, page 215)
Option A: A Use Case describes a detailed interaction between a user and a system, focusing on the functional or nonfunctional requirements and covering normal and alternative paths in achieving a goal.
Option C: A Context Diagram is a tool used to visually represent the interactions between a system and external entities (like users, systems, or databases). It provides a high-level overview but does not focus on user value in the same way a user story does.
Incorrect
A User Story is a brief, simple description of a feature told from the perspective of the person who desires the capability, usually a user or customer. It is a tool commonly used in adaptive approaches, like Agile, to capture stakeholder requirements in the form of “As a [type of user], I want [some goal] so that [some reason].” The user story focuses on the value to the user and what they need from the system. (PMI guide to business analysis, page 215)
Option A: A Use Case describes a detailed interaction between a user and a system, focusing on the functional or nonfunctional requirements and covering normal and alternative paths in achieving a goal.
Option C: A Context Diagram is a tool used to visually represent the interactions between a system and external entities (like users, systems, or databases). It provides a high-level overview but does not focus on user value in the same way a user story does.
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Question 90 of 150
90. Question
The progressive elaboration of high-level information into detailed plans is carried out by:
Correct
The Project Manager carries out the progressive elaboration of high-level information into detailed plans, as part of the iterative planning process.
Incorrect
The Project Manager carries out the progressive elaboration of high-level information into detailed plans, as part of the iterative planning process.
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Question 91 of 150
91. Question
To ensure that the final product aligns with the specified design requirements, what should the business analyst do?
Correct
A traceability matrix is a tool that links requirements to their corresponding design elements and final deliverables. It allows the business analyst to track and verify that each requirement is implemented as specified, ensuring alignment between the final product and the design requirements.
Incorrect
A traceability matrix is a tool that links requirements to their corresponding design elements and final deliverables. It allows the business analyst to track and verify that each requirement is implemented as specified, ensuring alignment between the final product and the design requirements.
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Question 92 of 150
92. Question
What is the main focus of the ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement’ process:
Correct
The main focus of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is to ensure that stakeholder expectations are met, fostering their continued support for the project.
Incorrect
The main focus of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is to ensure that stakeholder expectations are met, fostering their continued support for the project.
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Question 93 of 150
93. Question
Which quality management tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop response plans accordingly?
Correct
Root Cause Analysis is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop response plans to proactively address negative product risks or take advantage of potential opportunities.
Incorrect
Root Cause Analysis is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop response plans to proactively address negative product risks or take advantage of potential opportunities.
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Question 94 of 150
94. Question
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
Correct
Virtual teams create the potential for misunderstandings due to differences in communication styles, cultural backgrounds, and time zones.
Incorrect
Virtual teams create the potential for misunderstandings due to differences in communication styles, cultural backgrounds, and time zones.
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Question 95 of 150
95. Question
In which phase of team development activities do team members start working together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team:
Correct
In the Norming phase, team members start working together effectively, adjusting their work habits and behavior to support the team.
Incorrect
In the Norming phase, team members start working together effectively, adjusting their work habits and behavior to support the team.
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Question 96 of 150
96. Question
Which statement best describes the sprint backlog items?
Correct
The Sprint Backlog items are the user stories selected to be done in a Sprint in order to achieve the Sprint Goal.
Incorrect
The Sprint Backlog items are the user stories selected to be done in a Sprint in order to achieve the Sprint Goal.
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Question 97 of 150
97. Question
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor?
Correct
Market Conditions are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the project, as they are external factors that affect how the project is executed.
Incorrect
Market Conditions are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the project, as they are external factors that affect how the project is executed.
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Question 98 of 150
98. Question
Project stakeholder engagement management is primarily focused on:
Correct
Communication Methods are critical in project stakeholder engagement management, as they define how information is shared with and received from stakeholders.
Option B: Obtaining the Project Team is part of resource management, not stakeholder engagement.
Option C: Conflict of Interest Management is a specific issue but not the primary focus of stakeholder engagement.
Incorrect
Communication Methods are critical in project stakeholder engagement management, as they define how information is shared with and received from stakeholders.
Option B: Obtaining the Project Team is part of resource management, not stakeholder engagement.
Option C: Conflict of Interest Management is a specific issue but not the primary focus of stakeholder engagement.
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Question 99 of 150
99. Question
A risk resulting directly from implementing a risk response is called:
Correct
A Secondary Risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
Incorrect
A Secondary Risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
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Question 100 of 150
100. Question
The development of a project scope management plan specifically aims to:
Correct
The Project Scope Management Plan ensures that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully.
Incorrect
The Project Scope Management Plan ensures that the project includes all the work required and only the work required to complete the project successfully.
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Question 101 of 150
101. Question
A tool or technique used in the process of developing a project charter is:
Correct
Expert judgment is used in the development of the project charter to make informed decisions about the project’s objectives and requirements.
Incorrect
Expert judgment is used in the development of the project charter to make informed decisions about the project’s objectives and requirements.
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Question 102 of 150
102. Question
Scrum is defined as:
Correct
Overall explanation
Key points of scrum definition are:Scrum is a framework, not a methodology or process
Scrum is lightweight, not complicated
Scrum helps people, teams and organizations generate value through adaptive solutions for complex products.
Incorrect
Overall explanation
Key points of scrum definition are:Scrum is a framework, not a methodology or process
Scrum is lightweight, not complicated
Scrum helps people, teams and organizations generate value through adaptive solutions for complex products.
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Question 103 of 150
103. Question
A procurement document used to request offers from prospective sellers is called a:
Correct
Explanation
A Request for Proposal (RFP) is a procurement document used to request offers or proposals from prospective sellers.Incorrect
Explanation
A Request for Proposal (RFP) is a procurement document used to request offers or proposals from prospective sellers. -
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
A project manager is leading the development of a new electronics product. During the design phase, the team faces issues with assembly efficiency and high manufacturing costs. What tool can help manage quality while ensuring fast and cost-effective assembly?
Correct
Design for X refers to a set of technical guidelines applied during product design to optimize specific aspects, such as reliability, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality. DfX aims to enhance the final product’s characteristics by controlling or improving these factors. Implementing Design for X can lead to cost reductions, quality improvements, better performance, and increased customer satisfaction.
Options A, C, D: Data representation, Data gathering, and Audits are tools to manage quality, but they do not fit for this situation.
Incorrect
Design for X refers to a set of technical guidelines applied during product design to optimize specific aspects, such as reliability, assembly, manufacturing, cost, service, usability, safety, and quality. DfX aims to enhance the final product’s characteristics by controlling or improving these factors. Implementing Design for X can lead to cost reductions, quality improvements, better performance, and increased customer satisfaction.
Options A, C, D: Data representation, Data gathering, and Audits are tools to manage quality, but they do not fit for this situation.
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Question 105 of 150
105. Question
A business analyst is looking to compare the performance of the product against competitor’s performance, standards, and best practices. What technique should the business analyst use?
Correct
Benchmarking is a technique used to compare the current performance of a process, system, or organization against a predefined standard, best practice, or competitor’s performance. It helps identify areas for improvement and sets goals based on high-performance standards. This technique is often used to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of processes by learning from the best practices in the industry (PMI guide to business analysis, page 60).
Incorrect
Benchmarking is a technique used to compare the current performance of a process, system, or organization against a predefined standard, best practice, or competitor’s performance. It helps identify areas for improvement and sets goals based on high-performance standards. This technique is often used to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of processes by learning from the best practices in the industry (PMI guide to business analysis, page 60).
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Question 106 of 150
106. Question
In an industrial project, a business analyst realized the need for a visual representation of the manufacturing process flow, which could also be used to determine when quality checks should be conducted. Which diagramming technique would be most useful for the business analyst’s needs?
Correct
A flowchart (also referred to as process maps, progress flows, and progress flow diagrams) graphically displays the logical order of the project’s progress flow. Flowcharts can be used for process improvement as well as identifying where quality defects can occur or where to incorporate quality checks.
Options B & D: A Pareto chart is displayed as a histogram, illustrating the most serious causes of an error, while a scatter diagram is used to determine the correlation between two variables. Both diagrams don’t show the manufacturing process flow.
Option C: Context diagrams are used to visually demonstrate how a business process, other systems, and people, all interact. So, context diagrams can include a business process as one of its components, but they can’t give you an inside look at how the process flows.
Incorrect
A flowchart (also referred to as process maps, progress flows, and progress flow diagrams) graphically displays the logical order of the project’s progress flow. Flowcharts can be used for process improvement as well as identifying where quality defects can occur or where to incorporate quality checks.
Options B & D: A Pareto chart is displayed as a histogram, illustrating the most serious causes of an error, while a scatter diagram is used to determine the correlation between two variables. Both diagrams don’t show the manufacturing process flow.
Option C: Context diagrams are used to visually demonstrate how a business process, other systems, and people, all interact. So, context diagrams can include a business process as one of its components, but they can’t give you an inside look at how the process flows.
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Question 107 of 150
107. Question
What should the project manager do when a process is out of control?
Correct
When a process is out of control, the project manager should investigate the root cause and recommend corrective action to bring the process back into control.
Incorrect
When a process is out of control, the project manager should investigate the root cause and recommend corrective action to bring the process back into control.
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Question 108 of 150
108. Question
The project sponsor requests information on the resource levels and resource use throughout the project. What should the project manager share with the sponsor?
Correct
A Resource Histogram shows resource levels and usage throughout the project, providing a visual representation of resource allocation over time.
Incorrect
A Resource Histogram shows resource levels and usage throughout the project, providing a visual representation of resource allocation over time.
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Question 109 of 150
109. Question
The project manager’s role during the executing process is to:
Correct
The role of the project manager in the executing process is to supervise the performed work to ensure that project activities are carried out according to plan.
Incorrect
The role of the project manager in the executing process is to supervise the performed work to ensure that project activities are carried out according to plan.
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Question 110 of 150
110. Question
Which document includes information on each identified stakeholder’s position regarding the project?
Correct
The Stakeholder Register includes information on each identified stakeholder’s position regarding the project, their influence, and their interest.
Incorrect
The Stakeholder Register includes information on each identified stakeholder’s position regarding the project, their influence, and their interest.
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Question 111 of 150
111. Question
What is the earliest point at which the project manager can identify resources assigned to a project?
Correct
Resources can be identified as early as the Initiating phase, often through pre-assignment or resource negotiations. Pre-assignment might include the team members who have already been identified in the Develop Project Charter Process (Initiating process group) or other processes before the initial resource management plan has been completed (PMI Process Groups, page 214).
Incorrect
Resources can be identified as early as the Initiating phase, often through pre-assignment or resource negotiations. Pre-assignment might include the team members who have already been identified in the Develop Project Charter Process (Initiating process group) or other processes before the initial resource management plan has been completed (PMI Process Groups, page 214).
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Question 112 of 150
112. Question
The project scope statement should contain all of the following except:
Correct
Detailed risks are not typically included in the project scope statement; they are addressed in the risk register and risk reports.
Incorrect
Detailed risks are not typically included in the project scope statement; they are addressed in the risk register and risk reports.
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Question 113 of 150
113. Question
During which process are the scope baseline and the project scope statement created?
Correct
The scope baseline and project scope statement are created during the Define Scope process, which defines the detailed project scope, deliverables, and work required.
Incorrect
The scope baseline and project scope statement are created during the Define Scope process, which defines the detailed project scope, deliverables, and work required.
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Question 114 of 150
114. Question
During a Sprint, a Product Owner may engage in which of the following two activities? (Select two)
Correct
The Product Owner may represent the needs of many stakeholders including management. They are required to create and clearly communicate the Product Backlog items.
Option A: The daily standup is for the team. It is not for the Product Owner to facilitate it.
Option C: The developers prioritize their work during the sprint, not the product owner.
Option E: As a servant leader, the agile project manager is responsible for resolving problems encountered by the team.
Incorrect
The Product Owner may represent the needs of many stakeholders including management. They are required to create and clearly communicate the Product Backlog items.
Option A: The daily standup is for the team. It is not for the Product Owner to facilitate it.
Option C: The developers prioritize their work during the sprint, not the product owner.
Option E: As a servant leader, the agile project manager is responsible for resolving problems encountered by the team.
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Question 115 of 150
115. Question
Which of the following is a tool used in stakeholder engagement?
Correct
Net Promoter Score (NPS) allows stakeholders to assign a numerical score that ranges from 0 to 10 to indicate their satisfaction level with the project, product, or service, as well as their willingness to recommend it to others.
Incorrect
Net Promoter Score (NPS) allows stakeholders to assign a numerical score that ranges from 0 to 10 to indicate their satisfaction level with the project, product, or service, as well as their willingness to recommend it to others.
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Question 116 of 150
116. Question
In a matrix organization, a project manager shares responsibility for managing the project team with:
Correct
In a matrix organization, the project manager shares responsibility for managing the project team with the Functional Manager, who oversees the team members’ functional work.
Incorrect
In a matrix organization, the project manager shares responsibility for managing the project team with the Functional Manager, who oversees the team members’ functional work.
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Question 117 of 150
117. Question
What is the primary focus of the business analyst when dealing with internal stakeholders?
Correct
The business analyst acts as a bridge between the business and the project team, ensuring that the business vision is communicated clearly and that stakeholder needs are met (PMI guide to business analysis, page 49).
Incorrect
The business analyst acts as a bridge between the business and the project team, ensuring that the business vision is communicated clearly and that stakeholder needs are met (PMI guide to business analysis, page 49).
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Question 118 of 150
118. Question
What is the role of Subject Matter Experts (SMEs) in business analysis?
Correct
Subject Matter Expert (SME) offers their knowledge and expertise in a specific domain, process, or technology during the elicitation and analysis phases. SMEs provide valuable insights that help business analysts understand requirements, processes, and potential solutions. They assist in ensuring that the solutions align with business needs and industry standards (PMI guide to business analysis, page 51).
Incorrect
Subject Matter Expert (SME) offers their knowledge and expertise in a specific domain, process, or technology during the elicitation and analysis phases. SMEs provide valuable insights that help business analysts understand requirements, processes, and potential solutions. They assist in ensuring that the solutions align with business needs and industry standards (PMI guide to business analysis, page 51).
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Question 119 of 150
119. Question
How can product roadmaps help align multiple products in a portfolio?
Correct
Product roadmaps are used to align multiple products in a portfolio by providing a unified vision, strategy, and timing for a set of products. This helps ensure that each product supports the overall business goals and is aligned with organizational priorities, while still allowing for strategic adjustments when necessary (PMI guide to business analysis, page 93).
Incorrect
Product roadmaps are used to align multiple products in a portfolio by providing a unified vision, strategy, and timing for a set of products. This helps ensure that each product supports the overall business goals and is aligned with organizational priorities, while still allowing for strategic adjustments when necessary (PMI guide to business analysis, page 93).
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Question 120 of 150
120. Question
A complete project statement of work (SOW) includes all of the following except:
Correct
Organizational Strategy is not part of the project statement of work (SOW), which focuses on the business need, project objectives, and product scope description.
Incorrect
Organizational Strategy is not part of the project statement of work (SOW), which focuses on the business need, project objectives, and product scope description.
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Question 121 of 150
121. Question
What should the Scrum Master do to increase the productivity of the development team? (Select two)
Correct
A Scrum Master is a servant-leader for the development team. Facilitating and removing impediments helps optimize the team’s productivity.
Incorrect
A Scrum Master is a servant-leader for the development team. Facilitating and removing impediments helps optimize the team’s productivity.
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Question 122 of 150
122. Question
A new project has been launched to resolve issues raised by a department that was not involved in the last project. What should the business analyst do to ensure the satisfaction of this department?
Correct
Engaging the department early allows them to provide input on what they expect from the update, ensuring that their specific needs and concerns are addressed. Defining acceptance criteria ensures that the update meets their expectations.
Option D: The business analyst should elicit requirements; it’s not the responsibility of the department to define the project scope.
Incorrect
Engaging the department early allows them to provide input on what they expect from the update, ensuring that their specific needs and concerns are addressed. Defining acceptance criteria ensures that the update meets their expectations.
Option D: The business analyst should elicit requirements; it’s not the responsibility of the department to define the project scope.
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Question 123 of 150
123. Question
Which of the following processes is used to create a detailed description of the project work?
Correct
Define Scope is the process of creating a detailed description of the project and product, specifying what will be included and excluded.
Incorrect
Define Scope is the process of creating a detailed description of the project and product, specifying what will be included and excluded.
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Question 124 of 150
124. Question
Which type of organizational structure allows project team members to report to both the project manager and the functional manager?
Correct
A Matrix organizational structure allows project team members to report to both the project manager and the functional manager, balancing authority between them.
Incorrect
A Matrix organizational structure allows project team members to report to both the project manager and the functional manager, balancing authority between them.
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Question 125 of 150
125. Question
In the “Monitor and Control Project Work” process, the project manager reviews and approves changes to the project’s scope, schedule, and cost. This process also involves:
Correct
The Monitor and Control Project Work process involves updating the project management plan to reflect changes in scope, schedule, and cost (PMI Process Groups, page 163).
Incorrect
The Monitor and Control Project Work process involves updating the project management plan to reflect changes in scope, schedule, and cost (PMI Process Groups, page 163).
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Question 126 of 150
126. Question
What is a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?
Correct
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is a document that maps project roles and responsibilities, showing who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed (RACI) for each task.
Incorrect
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is a document that maps project roles and responsibilities, showing who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed (RACI) for each task.
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Question 127 of 150
127. Question
Which tool or technique is used to determine whether a project or phase should be started, continued, or terminated?
Correct
The Cost-Benefit Analysis is used to determine whether a project or phase should be started, continued, or terminated by comparing the expected benefits to the costs.
Incorrect
The Cost-Benefit Analysis is used to determine whether a project or phase should be started, continued, or terminated by comparing the expected benefits to the costs.
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Question 128 of 150
128. Question
How is the product backlog ordered?
Correct
Ordering Product Backlog items is one of the Product Owner’s responsibilities although they may delegate the responsibility to others. Regardless, the Product Owner remains accountable. The most valuable product backlog items should be placed at the top.
Incorrect
Ordering Product Backlog items is one of the Product Owner’s responsibilities although they may delegate the responsibility to others. Regardless, the Product Owner remains accountable. The most valuable product backlog items should be placed at the top.
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Question 129 of 150
129. Question
Which of the following is a technique used to shorten a project schedule?
Correct
Crashing is a technique used to shorten a project schedule by adding more resources to critical path activities to complete them faster.
Incorrect
Crashing is a technique used to shorten a project schedule by adding more resources to critical path activities to complete them faster.
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Question 130 of 150
130. Question
Which document authorizes the project?
Correct
The Project Charter is the document that formally authorizes the project, providing the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Incorrect
The Project Charter is the document that formally authorizes the project, providing the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
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Question 131 of 150
131. Question
The completion of a project phase or major deliverable is often marked by:
Correct
A Milestone marks the completion of a project phase or major deliverable and is a significant point in the project schedule.
Incorrect
A Milestone marks the completion of a project phase or major deliverable and is a significant point in the project schedule.
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Question 132 of 150
132. Question
Which of the following is the main characteristic of an agile team?
Correct
The agile team should be cross-functional, meaning it collectively possesses all the skills required to produce a potentially shippable product increment.
Incorrect
The agile team should be cross-functional, meaning it collectively possesses all the skills required to produce a potentially shippable product increment.
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Question 133 of 150
133. Question
Which tool or technique is used to assess project risks?
Correct
The Probability and Impact Matrix is used to assess project risk by evaluating the likelihood of risk events and their potential impact on the project.
Incorrect
The Probability and Impact Matrix is used to assess project risk by evaluating the likelihood of risk events and their potential impact on the project.
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Question 134 of 150
134. Question
A project is struggling to meet its original schedule due to underestimated complexities in system integration. What should the business analyst do to prevent further delays?
Correct
A business analysis performance assessment is a formal evaluation process used to understand the effectiveness of the business analysis practices employed in a project. This process helps identify the strengths and weaknesses of the techniques being used and suggests improvements or changes that can help address issues like underestimated complexities in system integration. This would allow the team to pinpoint the root causes of the delays and suggest process improvements to avoid further problems (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 309).
Incorrect
A business analysis performance assessment is a formal evaluation process used to understand the effectiveness of the business analysis practices employed in a project. This process helps identify the strengths and weaknesses of the techniques being used and suggests improvements or changes that can help address issues like underestimated complexities in system integration. This would allow the team to pinpoint the root causes of the delays and suggest process improvements to avoid further problems (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 309).
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Question 135 of 150
135. Question
In which approach does the business analyst focus on gathering detailed requirements before development begins?
Correct
In the Predictive approach, the business analyst’s primary focus is on detailed requirements elicitation before development begins. This method follows a structured and linear process where all requirements are gathered and documented comprehensively upfront, ensuring that the development team has a clear and complete understanding of what needs to be built.
Incorrect
In the Predictive approach, the business analyst’s primary focus is on detailed requirements elicitation before development begins. This method follows a structured and linear process where all requirements are gathered and documented comprehensively upfront, ensuring that the development team has a clear and complete understanding of what needs to be built.
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Question 136 of 150
136. Question
A business analyst identified several stakeholders and is looking for categorizing them according to their needs. Which tool or technique should the business analyst use?
Correct
Stakeholder mapping and representation is a method of categorizing stakeholders using various methods. Categorizing stakeholders assists the project team in building relationships with the identified stakeholders (PMI Process Groups, page 301).
Incorrect
Stakeholder mapping and representation is a method of categorizing stakeholders using various methods. Categorizing stakeholders assists the project team in building relationships with the identified stakeholders (PMI Process Groups, page 301).
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Question 137 of 150
137. Question
Which tool or technique is used to compress the project schedule by running activities in parallel?
Correct
Fast Tracking is a schedule compression technique that involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned in sequence.
Incorrect
Fast Tracking is a schedule compression technique that involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned in sequence.
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Question 138 of 150
138. Question
Which of the following is an appropriate topic to be discussed by the Scrum team during a Sprint Retrospective? (Select two)
Correct
The purpose of the Sprint Retrospective is to plan ways to improve processes. The Scrum team inspects how the last sprint went with regard to individuals, interactions, processes, tools, and their Definition of “Done”. The team members discuss what went well during the Sprint, what problems they encountered, and how those problems were (or were not) solved.
Incorrect
The purpose of the Sprint Retrospective is to plan ways to improve processes. The Scrum team inspects how the last sprint went with regard to individuals, interactions, processes, tools, and their Definition of “Done”. The team members discuss what went well during the Sprint, what problems they encountered, and how those problems were (or were not) solved.
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Question 139 of 150
139. Question
In which approach does the business analyst continuously refine the product backlog items based on changing requirements?
Correct
In adaptive approaches, the business analyst works closely with the product owner to continuously refine the product backlog. This includes adding or removing items, elaborating on requirements, and reprioritizing tasks based on evolving business conditions and priorities (PMI guide to business analysis, page 233).
Incorrect
In adaptive approaches, the business analyst works closely with the product owner to continuously refine the product backlog. This includes adding or removing items, elaborating on requirements, and reprioritizing tasks based on evolving business conditions and priorities (PMI guide to business analysis, page 233).
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Question 140 of 150
140. Question
What is the primary benefit of the “Validate Scope” process?
Correct
The primary benefit of the Validate Scope process is that it facilitates the acceptance of the deliverables by the customer, ensuring that the work meets the project requirements.
Incorrect
The primary benefit of the Validate Scope process is that it facilitates the acceptance of the deliverables by the customer, ensuring that the work meets the project requirements.
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Question 141 of 150
141. Question
A business analyst is tasked to increase sales by analyzing similar products offered by competitors. Which technique should the business analyst use?
Correct
Competitive analysis involves researching and analyzing competitors’ products, strategies, and market positioning. It helps the business analyst understand the competitive landscape and identify opportunities to differentiate and improve their own products.
Option C: Benchmarking involves comparing specific aspects of the product with competitors, industry best practices, or standards. In this scenario, the business analyst is focusing on competitors’ analysis rather than comparing performance or strategies.
Incorrect
Competitive analysis involves researching and analyzing competitors’ products, strategies, and market positioning. It helps the business analyst understand the competitive landscape and identify opportunities to differentiate and improve their own products.
Option C: Benchmarking involves comparing specific aspects of the product with competitors, industry best practices, or standards. In this scenario, the business analyst is focusing on competitors’ analysis rather than comparing performance or strategies.
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Question 142 of 150
142. Question
Which of the following is NOT typically used to define acceptance criteria?
Correct
Stakeholder analysis is not used to define acceptance criteria. Stakeholder analysis identifies and assesses the stakeholders’ needs, roles, and influence, but it does not directly determine the conditions under which a product or feature is considered complete (PMI guide to business analysis, page 217).
Incorrect
Stakeholder analysis is not used to define acceptance criteria. Stakeholder analysis identifies and assesses the stakeholders’ needs, roles, and influence, but it does not directly determine the conditions under which a product or feature is considered complete (PMI guide to business analysis, page 217).
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Question 143 of 150
143. Question
Which concept ensures that a project team agrees on a set of conditions that must be met for a user story or iteration to be considered complete and accepted by the product owner?
Correct
The definition of done (DoD) is a series of conditions that the entire team agrees to complete before an item is considered sufficiently developed to be accepted by the business stakeholders. The definition of done for a user story or iteration helps the project team know that the work is complete so the team can move on to the next user story or iteration (The PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 219).
Incorrect
The definition of done (DoD) is a series of conditions that the entire team agrees to complete before an item is considered sufficiently developed to be accepted by the business stakeholders. The definition of done for a user story or iteration helps the project team know that the work is complete so the team can move on to the next user story or iteration (The PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 219).
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Question 144 of 150
144. Question
A risk response strategy in which the project team takes no action toward a risk except to document it and revisit it periodically is called:
Correct
“Accept” is the risk response strategy where the project team takes no action toward a risk except to document it and revisit it periodically.
Incorrect
“Accept” is the risk response strategy where the project team takes no action toward a risk except to document it and revisit it periodically.
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Question 145 of 150
145. Question
Which document is used to record the details of each change request, including the analysis of its impact on project constraints?
Correct
The change log is used to record the details of each change request, including the analysis of its impact on project constraints like scope, time, cost, and quality.
Incorrect
The change log is used to record the details of each change request, including the analysis of its impact on project constraints like scope, time, cost, and quality.
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Question 146 of 150
146. Question
What is the primary purpose of the lessons learned document?
Correct
The primary purpose of a ‘lessons learned’ document is to ensure that future projects do not repeat the same mistakes by documenting what was learned from the current project.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of a ‘lessons learned’ document is to ensure that future projects do not repeat the same mistakes by documenting what was learned from the current project.
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Question 147 of 150
147. Question
Midway through a project, the business analyst realizes that the project’s expenses are surpassing the expected benefits. Which of the following documents should the business analyst use to deal with the risk of discontinuing the project?
Correct
The business case provides the rationale for undertaking the project, including an analysis of the expected benefits, costs, and risks. It is used to justify the project’s continuation or discontinuation by comparing the projected benefits against the actual expenses and risks.
Incorrect
The business case provides the rationale for undertaking the project, including an analysis of the expected benefits, costs, and risks. It is used to justify the project’s continuation or discontinuation by comparing the projected benefits against the actual expenses and risks.
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Question 148 of 150
148. Question
How are acceptance criteria related to the Definition of Done?
Correct
Acceptance criteria define the specific conditions that a product, feature, or user story must meet to be considered complete and acceptable to stakeholders. These criteria are part of the “Definition of Done”, which is a broader concept encompassing all the requirements and standards (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 219).
Incorrect
Acceptance criteria define the specific conditions that a product, feature, or user story must meet to be considered complete and acceptable to stakeholders. These criteria are part of the “Definition of Done”, which is a broader concept encompassing all the requirements and standards (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 219).
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Question 149 of 150
149. Question
When team members are asked to take on work outside their traditional roles, which development approach is likely being used?
Correct
Team members often adopt a flexible role distribution to meet iteration goals. It is common for individuals to perform tasks outside their typical job function in order to adapt to the dynamic nature of the project and ensure timely delivery (PMI guide to business analysis, page 311).
Options A & D: In predictive approaches, i.e., waterfall or traditional, roles are typically more defined and rigid. Each team member’s responsibilities are established upfront, and changes to scope or tasks are carefully controlled.
Option C: The incremental approach defines a set series of deliverables. In this approach, the project is thoroughly planned out from the beginning. Therefore, team members are unlikely to deviate from their established roles since work is highly structured.
Incorrect
Team members often adopt a flexible role distribution to meet iteration goals. It is common for individuals to perform tasks outside their typical job function in order to adapt to the dynamic nature of the project and ensure timely delivery (PMI guide to business analysis, page 311).
Options A & D: In predictive approaches, i.e., waterfall or traditional, roles are typically more defined and rigid. Each team member’s responsibilities are established upfront, and changes to scope or tasks are carefully controlled.
Option C: The incremental approach defines a set series of deliverables. In this approach, the project is thoroughly planned out from the beginning. Therefore, team members are unlikely to deviate from their established roles since work is highly structured.
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Question 150 of 150
150. Question
A project manager is managing a project using the Scrum framework. The project manager receives a call from the product owner asking for a meeting with the team to discuss the possible approaches to implement user stories and make some initial size estimations. What type of meeting is the product owner referring to?
Correct
Backlog refinement provides a chance for the product owner to discuss and address stories’ requirements with the team. This can involve discussing requirements, potential approaches, and even estimations in order to end up with a clear vision of how to approach stories (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
Incorrect
Backlog refinement provides a chance for the product owner to discuss and address stories’ requirements with the team. This can involve discussing requirements, potential approaches, and even estimations in order to end up with a clear vision of how to approach stories (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
Explanations to Boost Your CAPM Exam Understanding
Our practice tests include thorough explanations for both right and wrong answers to every question. This method teaches you not only what the correct response is, but also why it is correct and, just as crucially, why the other answers are incorrect. So, You will also improve your comprehension overall by avoiding common mistakes and as well as obtaining a deeper understanding of important concepts by going over these explanations again. To succeed on the CAPM exam and beyond, you must genuinely understand the subject matter, not just memorise answers.
CAPM Mock Exam Domains
The current mock exam focuses on the CAPM certification exam, which is divided into four domains by the Project Management Institute (PMI):
- Domain I: Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts (36% of the test)
- Key tasks include understanding project life cycles, planning, roles, strategies, and problem-solving tools.
- Domain II: Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies (17% of the test)
- Focuses on when to use predictive approaches, project management planning, and documentation of project controls.
- Domain III: Agile Frameworks/Methodologies (20% of the test)
- Covers when to use agile approaches, planning iterations, documenting controls, and task management.
- Domain IV: Business Analysis Frameworks (27% of the test)
- Involves understanding business analysis roles, stakeholder communication, requirements gathering, product roadmaps, and validation of requirements.
Who This Course is For?
The practice exams and mock tests are intended for IT professionals who wants to excel in their career.
- Individuals preparing to pass the PMI CAPM® Exan
- Project managers in IT field who want to clear the CAPM® exam on their first attempt
- IT professionals and also recent graduates who wants to build a strong foundation in project management
- Anyone seeking a globally recognized certification to advance their career in project management