The CAPM Mock Test 2025 is designed to imitate the real exam, helping you practice exam time management, increase your confidence, and manage stress. Each mock exam follows the exact format, difficulty level, and time constraints to represent the actual test format. So, exam aspirants will get the realistic experience. By simulating test day conditions, these mocks not only highlight your strengths and weaknesses but also enable you to develop effective test taking strategies. Regular practice with these exams ensures you’re well prepared, reducing last minute anxiety and improving your chances of achieving a high score.
Each Mock exam consists of 150 MCQ questions curated to reflect the style, structure, and difficulty of the actual test. These questions will cover all key topics from the CAPM syllabus, ensuring a comprehensive review of the syllabus. Moreover the exam is a mix of easy, moderate, and challenging questions. The mock tests are designed to assess your readiness and identify areas that need improvement. Practicing with this format not only helps in reinforcing concepts but also builds your stamina to maintain focus throughout the entire duration of the real exam.
CAPM Mock Test 2
Below is the CAPM Mock Test with 150 questions and a duration of 3 hours. We hope you will utilize these free mock tests to assess your strengths, identify areas that need improvement, and fine tune your time management skills before the real exam. Good luck, and give it your best shot!
CAPM Mock Test 2
Quiz-summary
0 of 150 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- 101
- 102
- 103
- 104
- 105
- 106
- 107
- 108
- 109
- 110
- 111
- 112
- 113
- 114
- 115
- 116
- 117
- 118
- 119
- 120
- 121
- 122
- 123
- 124
- 125
- 126
- 127
- 128
- 129
- 130
- 131
- 132
- 133
- 134
- 135
- 136
- 137
- 138
- 139
- 140
- 141
- 142
- 143
- 144
- 145
- 146
- 147
- 148
- 149
- 150
Information
CAPM Mock Test 2
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 150 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- CAPM 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- 101
- 102
- 103
- 104
- 105
- 106
- 107
- 108
- 109
- 110
- 111
- 112
- 113
- 114
- 115
- 116
- 117
- 118
- 119
- 120
- 121
- 122
- 123
- 124
- 125
- 126
- 127
- 128
- 129
- 130
- 131
- 132
- 133
- 134
- 135
- 136
- 137
- 138
- 139
- 140
- 141
- 142
- 143
- 144
- 145
- 146
- 147
- 148
- 149
- 150
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 150
1. Question
Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is related to which project management domain? (Select two)
Correct
Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is related to three domains: Planning, Delivery and Measurement (PMBOK 7, page 194).
Option B: Scope development is a made-up term. PMBOK 7 defines eight domains: 1) Stakeholders, 2) Team, 3) Development approach and Life cycle, 4) Planning, 5) Project work, 6) Delivery, 7) Performance, 8) Uncertainty and ambiguity.
Incorrect
Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is related to three domains: Planning, Delivery and Measurement (PMBOK 7, page 194).
Option B: Scope development is a made-up term. PMBOK 7 defines eight domains: 1) Stakeholders, 2) Team, 3) Development approach and Life cycle, 4) Planning, 5) Project work, 6) Delivery, 7) Performance, 8) Uncertainty and ambiguity.
-
Question 2 of 150
2. Question
Rearrange the phases of the project team development model Tuckman Ladder in their proper order:
Correct
A) Forming: At this initial stage, the project team assembles for the first time. Project team members get to know each other’s responsibilities and skills. This might occur in the kickoff meeting.
B) Storming: Team members compete for roles and recognition as their personalities, strengths, and weaknesses emerge. This phase can involve conflict and adjustment as they learn to collaborate.
C) Norming: At this point, each project team member knows their roles on the team and how to interact with others. Although initial challenges may arise, they are swiftly addressed, allowing the team to progress effectively and initiate their tasks.
D) Performing: The project team at this stage becomes operationally efficient. This is the mature project team stage. Project teams develop synergy between each other. Project team members become performant and produce a high-quality product.
E) Adjourning: The project team finishes the work and disbands to work on other things.
Incorrect
A) Forming: At this initial stage, the project team assembles for the first time. Project team members get to know each other’s responsibilities and skills. This might occur in the kickoff meeting.
B) Storming: Team members compete for roles and recognition as their personalities, strengths, and weaknesses emerge. This phase can involve conflict and adjustment as they learn to collaborate.
C) Norming: At this point, each project team member knows their roles on the team and how to interact with others. Although initial challenges may arise, they are swiftly addressed, allowing the team to progress effectively and initiate their tasks.
D) Performing: The project team at this stage becomes operationally efficient. This is the mature project team stage. Project teams develop synergy between each other. Project team members become performant and produce a high-quality product.
E) Adjourning: The project team finishes the work and disbands to work on other things.
-
Question 3 of 150
3. Question
Halfway through a sprint, the development team realized that they planned for more work than they could possibly complete. What should the project manager advise the development team to do next?
Correct
First, the development team should collaborate with the product owner in order to remove some work items from the sprint backlog. The sprint backlog is a living artifact that should be updated whenever something new is learned or discovered. Afterward, in the sprint retrospective, the team should discuss how they can improve their estimations.
Option B: Reprioritizing the product backlog items won’t help solve this problem. This activity is often undertaken during the refinement sessions with the purpose of making user stories ready for the following iterations.
Option D: The agile team should be proactive and should not wait for the sprint review in order to inform the product owner that they couldn’t complete the affected work.
Incorrect
First, the development team should collaborate with the product owner in order to remove some work items from the sprint backlog. The sprint backlog is a living artifact that should be updated whenever something new is learned or discovered. Afterward, in the sprint retrospective, the team should discuss how they can improve their estimations.
Option B: Reprioritizing the product backlog items won’t help solve this problem. This activity is often undertaken during the refinement sessions with the purpose of making user stories ready for the following iterations.
Option D: The agile team should be proactive and should not wait for the sprint review in order to inform the product owner that they couldn’t complete the affected work.
-
Question 4 of 150
4. Question
A project is 50% complete. During its planning phase, the project manager divided the project into 4 consecutive phases. Now that phase 2 is completed, they’re moving on to phase 3. Based on the following table, how much is this project’s Earned Value (EV)?
Correct
The project is 50% complete, so in order to calculate its EV, the following formula must be applied: EV = (BAC x % complete).
The project’s BAC is calculated by adding up all of the PVs of the project phases:
BAC = $2,000 + $2,000 + $3,000 + $3,000 = $10,000.
Therefore, the project’s EV = ($10,000 x %50) = $5,000.
Incorrect
The project is 50% complete, so in order to calculate its EV, the following formula must be applied: EV = (BAC x % complete).
The project’s BAC is calculated by adding up all of the PVs of the project phases:
BAC = $2,000 + $2,000 + $3,000 + $3,000 = $10,000.
Therefore, the project’s EV = ($10,000 x %50) = $5,000.
-
Question 5 of 150
5. Question
A senior manager has informed the project manager that she will be leading a Fintech (Financial Technology) project. However, after several weeks, the project manager began to feel concerned because each time she asked about the project’s start date, the senior manager replied that he was awaiting an official document to initiate work on the project. Which document is the senior manager referring to?
Correct
The project charter is the document that authorizes the project manager to launch the project execution (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184). It also includes a brief description of the project and its requirements.
Options B & C: the scope statement and the project management plan contain a detailed version of these requirements.
Incorrect
The project charter is the document that authorizes the project manager to launch the project execution (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184). It also includes a brief description of the project and its requirements.
Options B & C: the scope statement and the project management plan contain a detailed version of these requirements.
-
Question 6 of 150
6. Question
The table below presents some Scrum activities. To which Scrum events do activities A, B, C, and D belong respectively?
Correct
A. Inspects progress towards the sprint goal = Sprint execution
B. Presents the project’s performance to the stakeholders = Sprint review
C. Discusses the improvements that can be applied in the upcoming sprints = Sprint retrospective
D. Provides estimates of the required effort to complete user stories = Sprint planning
Please note that in the real exam such a question usually comes in the form of “drag & drop”.
Incorrect
A. Inspects progress towards the sprint goal = Sprint execution
B. Presents the project’s performance to the stakeholders = Sprint review
C. Discusses the improvements that can be applied in the upcoming sprints = Sprint retrospective
D. Provides estimates of the required effort to complete user stories = Sprint planning
Please note that in the real exam such a question usually comes in the form of “drag & drop”.
-
Question 7 of 150
7. Question
A project manager is in charge of a software development project that follows an Agile approach. During the project execution, they receive a request from the customer to alter a requirement. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Flexibility is one of the most important aspects of the Agile approach; the scope of work can change in response to new requirements. An Agile, adaptive, or change-driven approach encourages collecting feedback from stakeholders on a regular basis. Unlike the predictive approach, the Agile approach doesn’t involve a Change Control Board (CCB).
Incorrect
Flexibility is one of the most important aspects of the Agile approach; the scope of work can change in response to new requirements. An Agile, adaptive, or change-driven approach encourages collecting feedback from stakeholders on a regular basis. Unlike the predictive approach, the Agile approach doesn’t involve a Change Control Board (CCB).
-
Question 8 of 150
8. Question
A project manager is managing a project that consists of developing new software for a client. The project manager is collaborating with the client, business analysts, developers, and marketing team, on the project’s outcomes and requirements. Who gets to decide the project’s scope?
Correct
The client establishes the project’s requirements. After all, the project was issued by the client.
Option A: Business analysts and marketers are stakeholders that could influence the project’s scope, but the client has the final say.
Option C: The project manager is in charge of meeting requirements rather than their definition.
Incorrect
The client establishes the project’s requirements. After all, the project was issued by the client.
Option A: Business analysts and marketers are stakeholders that could influence the project’s scope, but the client has the final say.
Option C: The project manager is in charge of meeting requirements rather than their definition.
-
Question 9 of 150
9. Question
After getting assigned to manage a distressed project, a project manager reviews the schedule to find out that the previous project manager did not take into consideration procurement delays. Which of the following options represents this scenario?
Correct
The previous project manager made the assumption that the project would not experience any procurement delays.
Options A, B: There isn’t enough information to determine whether the scenario involves a schedule variance or a critical path activity.
Option D: The described situation is not a constraint.
Incorrect
The previous project manager made the assumption that the project would not experience any procurement delays.
Options A, B: There isn’t enough information to determine whether the scenario involves a schedule variance or a critical path activity.
Option D: The described situation is not a constraint.
-
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
A project manager is leading an Agile project where the team works in a continuous flow rather than using iterations. This approach proved to be less prescriptive and disruptive to the team. Which Agile framework is the project manager using?
Correct
The Kanban method involves pulling work into the system only when the team is capable of handling it. The Kanban method prioritizes productivity and efficiency through its workflow approach. Unlike the Scrum team, a Kanban team does not have predefined roles.
Incorrect
The Kanban method involves pulling work into the system only when the team is capable of handling it. The Kanban method prioritizes productivity and efficiency through its workflow approach. Unlike the Scrum team, a Kanban team does not have predefined roles.
-
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
Confronting a quality issue, the project manager uses the _______________, a basic quality management tool that applies the 80/20 Rule to identify top-priority defects.
Correct
A Pareto Chart is a vertical bar chart that ranks defects in descending order according to their frequency of occurrence. The Pareto Chart helps the project team focus on the causes that create the highest number of defects. Pareto’s Principle, aka Pareto’s Law, states that a limited number of causes usually produce the majority of defects or problems, which is referred to as the “80/20 principle” or “80/20 rule”.
Option C: PERT is not a chart; it’s an estimation technique that uses a “weighted” average estimate rather than a simple average ( (Optimistic + 4 * Mean + Pessimistic) / 6 ).
Incorrect
A Pareto Chart is a vertical bar chart that ranks defects in descending order according to their frequency of occurrence. The Pareto Chart helps the project team focus on the causes that create the highest number of defects. Pareto’s Principle, aka Pareto’s Law, states that a limited number of causes usually produce the majority of defects or problems, which is referred to as the “80/20 principle” or “80/20 rule”.
Option C: PERT is not a chart; it’s an estimation technique that uses a “weighted” average estimate rather than a simple average ( (Optimistic + 4 * Mean + Pessimistic) / 6 ).
-
Question 12 of 150
12. Question
At the end of the iteration, a team member informs the project manager that she wasn’t able to finish one of her assigned tasks due to an issue with her laptop. What should the project manager do in order to prevent such a situation from occurring in the future?
Correct
An Agile retrospective meeting takes place at the end of each iteration during which the team discusses what happened during the iteration and determines improvement areas for future iterations. The retrospective allows issues to be identified and discussed along with ideas for improvements. Retrospectives are a primary tool for managing project knowledge and developing the team through discussing what went well and what needs to be improved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 71).
Incorrect
An Agile retrospective meeting takes place at the end of each iteration during which the team discusses what happened during the iteration and determines improvement areas for future iterations. The retrospective allows issues to be identified and discussed along with ideas for improvements. Retrospectives are a primary tool for managing project knowledge and developing the team through discussing what went well and what needs to be improved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 71).
-
Question 13 of 150
13. Question
A project manager is in charge of a project that has an anticipated duration of 12 months and a $120,000 Budget at Completion (BAC). Equal amounts of project work should be completed each month. However, in the fourth month of the project, only 20% of the work was completed. The project manager spent $20,000 to finish the project. How much is the project’s earned value?
Correct
Explanation
20% of the project’s Earned Value is completed: EV = % finished x BAC = 0.2 x $120,000 = $24,000Incorrect
Explanation
20% of the project’s Earned Value is completed: EV = % finished x BAC = 0.2 x $120,000 = $24,000 -
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
To keep up with everything going on with their project, a project manager relies on emails as a medium to communicate with the project team and stakeholders. To write efficient emails, the project manager uses all of the following techniques, except:
Correct
In order to reduce misunderstandings when using written communication mediums, the project manager can rely on the 5 techniques or the 5Cs of written communication, which represent: Correct grammar and spelling, Concise expression and elimination of excess words, Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader, Coherent, logical flow of ideas, and Controlled flow of words and ideas. Tone variation is a verbal communication technique.
Incorrect
In order to reduce misunderstandings when using written communication mediums, the project manager can rely on the 5 techniques or the 5Cs of written communication, which represent: Correct grammar and spelling, Concise expression and elimination of excess words, Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader, Coherent, logical flow of ideas, and Controlled flow of words and ideas. Tone variation is a verbal communication technique.
-
Question 15 of 150
15. Question
During a prospect meeting, the client insisted that the new website they want to develop must meet some crucial conditions: it must be SEO (Search Engine Optimization) friendly, with a score of 80% or above, and all of its pages must be responsive on all devices and screen sizes. The client is setting the website’s __________________.
Correct
A Definition of Done is a checklist of required criteria in order to consider a product ready for delivery (Agile Practice Guide, page 151). Functional requirements describe the product requirements, e.g., website menus, functionalities, services, etc. Fit for Use is when a product serves its purpose as it is usable in its current state.
Incorrect
A Definition of Done is a checklist of required criteria in order to consider a product ready for delivery (Agile Practice Guide, page 151). Functional requirements describe the product requirements, e.g., website menus, functionalities, services, etc. Fit for Use is when a product serves its purpose as it is usable in its current state.
-
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
During a training session, and in order to clearly explain what a project can be, a project management coach gave their trainees the following example:
Correct
Saving an endangered species of rhinos from extinction is the only correct example of a project since it has a unique outcome and a limited time frame. Governments and NGOs usually lead this kind of project which can take years. However, activities occurring after the project is complete, such as routinely keeping track of the endangered species population, could be considered operations. Periodically cleaning the local park, cyclically producing shoes, or routinely preparing dinner are all examples of operations rather than projects.
Incorrect
Saving an endangered species of rhinos from extinction is the only correct example of a project since it has a unique outcome and a limited time frame. Governments and NGOs usually lead this kind of project which can take years. However, activities occurring after the project is complete, such as routinely keeping track of the endangered species population, could be considered operations. Periodically cleaning the local park, cyclically producing shoes, or routinely preparing dinner are all examples of operations rather than projects.
-
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
Organizations often attempt to deliver projects with limited budgets and incomprehensive requirements. An Agile approach can be adopted to address such complexities. However, without proper communication, this approach won’t achieve its goals. Under this context, how should a project manager communicate?
Correct
Agile frameworks are known for their frequent and straightforward communication where a project manager is continuously checking in with the team to accordingly decide what could be alternatively done to improve the work pace and boost the team’s morale. Daily communication should not be confused with daily standup. Daily standup meetings are held by the agile team members who follow a scrum framework. The project manager or scrum master is not required to attend this meeting, but even if they do, the daily standup meeting should not be their only channel of communication with the team. Whether you adopt a predictive or an adaptive approach for your project, you have to use formal and informal communication according to the situation.
Incorrect
Agile frameworks are known for their frequent and straightforward communication where a project manager is continuously checking in with the team to accordingly decide what could be alternatively done to improve the work pace and boost the team’s morale. Daily communication should not be confused with daily standup. Daily standup meetings are held by the agile team members who follow a scrum framework. The project manager or scrum master is not required to attend this meeting, but even if they do, the daily standup meeting should not be their only channel of communication with the team. Whether you adopt a predictive or an adaptive approach for your project, you have to use formal and informal communication according to the situation.
-
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
A project manager is leading a project that was supposed to last 6 months. The project is currently in its second year. Which of the following statements best describes the situation?
Correct
The project took more time than it should have most likely because the project scope was not clearly defined. There is no indication in the described situation that the project should have been broken down into smaller sub-projects. The project team doesn’t usually have the power to approve or disapprove change requests. Changes conducted on the project scope fall under the Change Control Board’s (CCB) responsibility. The fact that the project has exceeded its allocated time means that the sponsor is still supporting the project, therefore the project should not be halted.
Incorrect
The project took more time than it should have most likely because the project scope was not clearly defined. There is no indication in the described situation that the project should have been broken down into smaller sub-projects. The project team doesn’t usually have the power to approve or disapprove change requests. Changes conducted on the project scope fall under the Change Control Board’s (CCB) responsibility. The fact that the project has exceeded its allocated time means that the sponsor is still supporting the project, therefore the project should not be halted.
-
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
A project manager is assigned to a construction project of a new housing complex that is expected to take fourteen months. During the last planning session, the project team finished decomposing the project deliverables. Which of the following documents was produced during this meeting?
Correct
Explanation
The process of breaking down project deliverables means the creation of the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).Incorrect
Explanation
The process of breaking down project deliverables means the creation of the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). -
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
A project manager is leading a rebranding project using a predictive approach for the planning phase and an Agile approach for work execution. The project manager receives an email from a key stakeholder requesting an estimation of the project completion date. In order to estimate the completion date, the project manager takes into consideration the team’s average velocity, which is 20 story points, and the fact that the project still has 205 remaining user story points to complete. How many iterations will it take to finish the project work?
Correct
If the team maintains an average velocity of 20 story points per iteration, it would take 11 iterations to complete the remaining 205 story points. (205 story points / 20 story points = 10.25 iterations). Since the timebox of an iteration should not be changed, the project team will need 11 iterations to complete the rest of the work.
Incorrect
If the team maintains an average velocity of 20 story points per iteration, it would take 11 iterations to complete the remaining 205 story points. (205 story points / 20 story points = 10.25 iterations). Since the timebox of an iteration should not be changed, the project team will need 11 iterations to complete the rest of the work.
-
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
A product owner started the day with a sprint planning meeting to discuss and define the goal and backlog of the upcoming sprint. Which of the following options is correct regarding the sprint planning meeting?
Correct
In the Scrum framework, the sprint planning meeting should include the scrum master, product owner, and the whole scrum team. When needed, other stakeholders can be invited by the team to attend this meeting. During the sprint planning meeting, the product owner identifies the features with the highest priority. The team asks questions to get the necessary understanding to be able to turn high-level user stories into more detailed tasks.
Incorrect
In the Scrum framework, the sprint planning meeting should include the scrum master, product owner, and the whole scrum team. When needed, other stakeholders can be invited by the team to attend this meeting. During the sprint planning meeting, the product owner identifies the features with the highest priority. The team asks questions to get the necessary understanding to be able to turn high-level user stories into more detailed tasks.
-
Question 22 of 150
22. Question
The project team is required to comply with new environmental regulations that limit the amount of waste that can be produced during the project’s execution, where should this situation be added?
Correct
This situation describes a constraint therefore it should be added to the assumption log. The assumption log records all the assumptions and the constraints of the project.
Incorrect
This situation describes a constraint therefore it should be added to the assumption log. The assumption log records all the assumptions and the constraints of the project.
-
Question 23 of 150
23. Question
Which of the following actions depicts smoothing?
Correct
Smoothing means smoothing away the issue by minimizing its perceived scale. Postponing decision-making depicts withdrawal. Taking a decision based on a 3rd party’s input (the experienced team member) represents forcing. Taking into account both parties’ opinions is known as compromise.
Incorrect
Smoothing means smoothing away the issue by minimizing its perceived scale. Postponing decision-making depicts withdrawal. Taking a decision based on a 3rd party’s input (the experienced team member) represents forcing. Taking into account both parties’ opinions is known as compromise.
-
Question 24 of 150
24. Question
A project manager is leading a new predictive project. To evaluate all change requests, a Change Control Board (CCB) has been established, in which the project sponsor is a member. One month into the project, the CCB received three change requests; the first from the sponsor, the second from a low-power stakeholder, and the third one was issued by a senior team member. Which of these individuals is not allowed to submit a change request?
Correct
Change requests may be submitted by any stakeholder involved with the project. The project sponsor(s), stakeholders, and the project team are all considered project stakeholders, therefore, they can all make change requests. CCB membership, power level, or involvement in project execution should not be restrictions for someone to request changes.
Incorrect
Change requests may be submitted by any stakeholder involved with the project. The project sponsor(s), stakeholders, and the project team are all considered project stakeholders, therefore, they can all make change requests. CCB membership, power level, or involvement in project execution should not be restrictions for someone to request changes.
-
Question 25 of 150
25. Question
After completing all requirements, the project manager sits with the product manager to go over each item of the deliverable acceptance criteria. The product manager found that among thirty deliverables, two did not meet requirements, so they asked the project manager to make the necessary changes before signing off the final delivery document. Which process are they both currently performing?
Correct
During the “Validate scope” process, deliverables are compared against the acceptance criteria and requirements in order to formally sign off the completed deliverables. “Validate Scope” consists in formalizing the approval and acceptance of the completed project deliverables. One of the outputs of the “Validate Scope” process is the accepted deliverables that were formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder.
Option A, B: “Control quality” and “Control scope” should be carried out before the “Validate scope” process. The verified deliverables obtained upon conducting the “Control Quality” process are the input of the “Validate Scope” process.
Incorrect
During the “Validate scope” process, deliverables are compared against the acceptance criteria and requirements in order to formally sign off the completed deliverables. “Validate Scope” consists in formalizing the approval and acceptance of the completed project deliverables. One of the outputs of the “Validate Scope” process is the accepted deliverables that were formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder.
Option A, B: “Control quality” and “Control scope” should be carried out before the “Validate scope” process. The verified deliverables obtained upon conducting the “Control Quality” process are the input of the “Validate Scope” process.
-
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
What are the roles of a project manager? (select three)
Correct
A project manager should guide and motivate the team, making strategic decisions and resolving conflicts to keep the project on track. Project managers think beyond the immediate tasks and challenges, planning for the future and aligning project goals with broader organizational objectives. Building and maintaining trust is crucial for effective team collaboration and morale, helping to ensure that team members are engaged and committed to the project’s success.
Incorrect
A project manager should guide and motivate the team, making strategic decisions and resolving conflicts to keep the project on track. Project managers think beyond the immediate tasks and challenges, planning for the future and aligning project goals with broader organizational objectives. Building and maintaining trust is crucial for effective team collaboration and morale, helping to ensure that team members are engaged and committed to the project’s success.
-
Question 27 of 150
27. Question
One month into project execution, the project manager notices that the sponsor is always late for their weekly meetings. However, the project manager chooses not to address the sponsor’s behavior. Instead, they document the frequent tardiness in the meetings’ notes. Which conflict resolution technique is the project manager using?
Correct
The unwillingness to deal with a conflict is referred to as withdrawing. This conflict resolution technique is acceptable when some time to cool off is needed in order to achieve a better understanding of the situation, or when the other party is unassailable or uncooperative (PMBOK 7th edition, page 169).
Incorrect
The unwillingness to deal with a conflict is referred to as withdrawing. This conflict resolution technique is acceptable when some time to cool off is needed in order to achieve a better understanding of the situation, or when the other party is unassailable or uncooperative (PMBOK 7th edition, page 169).
-
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
A(n) _____________________ helps stakeholders check out the status of material shortage, technical difficulties, scheduling conflicts, etc., and how they’re being monitored and treated.
Correct
Material shortage, technical difficulties, scheduling conflicts, etc. are problems that should be recorded in the issue log. An issue log allows stakeholders to record and monitor active issues and their status; who’s assigned to follow up and resolve a particular issue, for instance.
Incorrect
Material shortage, technical difficulties, scheduling conflicts, etc. are problems that should be recorded in the issue log. An issue log allows stakeholders to record and monitor active issues and their status; who’s assigned to follow up and resolve a particular issue, for instance.
-
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
A project manager collaborates with the project team to create the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for their project. What purpose does this document serve? (Select two)
Correct
The purpose of creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is to both organize and visualize the project scope. This document organizes work into work packages and assigns each package a code of accounts. Besides, as a visual tool, the WBS helps the team check the overall work plan, see how the project should progress, and appropriately manage the project workflow. The WBS is developed after identifying the project requirements and defining its scope.
Incorrect
The purpose of creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is to both organize and visualize the project scope. This document organizes work into work packages and assigns each package a code of accounts. Besides, as a visual tool, the WBS helps the team check the overall work plan, see how the project should progress, and appropriately manage the project workflow. The WBS is developed after identifying the project requirements and defining its scope.
-
Question 30 of 150
30. Question
A project manager uses the scrum framework to manage a graphic design project. Which of the following events will not be used by the project team?
Correct
Scrum teams use four main events: sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint review, and sprint retrospective.
Incorrect
Scrum teams use four main events: sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint review, and sprint retrospective.
-
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
A business analyst wants to ensure that the requirements align with and fulfill the business goals and objectives. Which process should the business analyst use?
Correct
Validate requirements is about ensuring that the requirements fulfill the business goals and objectives, confirming that they are the right requirements to achieve the intended outcomes (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 175).
Incorrect
Validate requirements is about ensuring that the requirements fulfill the business goals and objectives, confirming that they are the right requirements to achieve the intended outcomes (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 175).
-
Question 32 of 150
32. Question
In which project development approach is a high-level traceability and monitoring approach established early during the planning phase?
Correct
A high-level approach for traceability and monitoring is established early in the planning phase in case of predictive approach. This approach is refined and adjusted throughout the course of the project. Typically, substantial elements of product information and deliverables are tracked (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 257).
Option B: In an adaptive approach, traceability and monitoring may be outlined at a high level during iteration 0. However, tracing and managing changes to product information are often not considered.
Incorrect
A high-level approach for traceability and monitoring is established early in the planning phase in case of predictive approach. This approach is refined and adjusted throughout the course of the project. Typically, substantial elements of product information and deliverables are tracked (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 257).
Option B: In an adaptive approach, traceability and monitoring may be outlined at a high level during iteration 0. However, tracing and managing changes to product information are often not considered.
-
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
When performing earned value measurements, a project manager finds out that the Cost Performance Index (CPI) of their project is 0.91. What does this indicate?
Correct
Since it’s less than one, a 0.91 CPI indicates that the project is over budget; meaning that the project spent more money than expected. There is no evidence that the project is behind or ahead of schedule.
Incorrect
Since it’s less than one, a 0.91 CPI indicates that the project is over budget; meaning that the project spent more money than expected. There is no evidence that the project is behind or ahead of schedule.
-
Question 34 of 150
34. Question
Working in a risk-averse organization, the project manager suggested using the agile approach for a new project that has a high level of uncertainty. How should risk management be conducted in this case?
Correct
When managing an Agile project, risk identification occurs in all types of planning meetings, such as daily stand-ups, release meetings, iteration reviews, and retrospectives.
Incorrect
When managing an Agile project, risk identification occurs in all types of planning meetings, such as daily stand-ups, release meetings, iteration reviews, and retrospectives.
-
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
Which factor should be considered during Sprint Planning?
Correct
Team velocity, i.e., the sum of story points’ sizes of the completed features in the current iteration, allows the team to plan its next iteration more accurately by taking into consideration their historical performance (Agile Practice Guide, page 64).
Incorrect
Team velocity, i.e., the sum of story points’ sizes of the completed features in the current iteration, allows the team to plan its next iteration more accurately by taking into consideration their historical performance (Agile Practice Guide, page 64).
-
Question 36 of 150
36. Question
Which technique is used to display a sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations?
Correct
Storyboarding is a prototyping technique in which it involves creating a visual representation of a sequence of events or steps. (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 168)
Incorrect
Storyboarding is a prototyping technique in which it involves creating a visual representation of a sequence of events or steps. (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 168)
-
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
Now that the project is nearly finished, a key stakeholder asked the project manager whether they were nervous about the project deliverables approval process, to which the latter replied that they were confident that the customer will be satisfied with the result. What can ensure the satisfaction of the project’s customer?
Correct
It’s not enough to complete a project on time and under budget. You need to deliver value by creating a suitable product for your stakeholders’ needs. Customer satisfaction is about making sure that the people who are paying for the end product are happy with what they ultimately get. Conformance to requirements and usability of deliverables is the basis of customer satisfaction as they allow you to measure how well your product meets expectations.
Incorrect
It’s not enough to complete a project on time and under budget. You need to deliver value by creating a suitable product for your stakeholders’ needs. Customer satisfaction is about making sure that the people who are paying for the end product are happy with what they ultimately get. Conformance to requirements and usability of deliverables is the basis of customer satisfaction as they allow you to measure how well your product meets expectations.
-
Question 38 of 150
38. Question
A Project manager ensures that the project team documents all assumptions. The team records assumptions on an ongoing basis and then validates these assumptions. Which of the following helps the team validate a project assumption?
Correct
Historical data is the most useful when it comes to validating project assumptions.
Incorrect
Historical data is the most useful when it comes to validating project assumptions.
-
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
The project cost is lower than the project manager had anticipated. The project manager must spend all of the first phase’s allocated budget, otherwise, the budget of the second phase will be reduced. To use up the assigned budget for the first phase, the project manager decides to purchase better instruments to offer the client higher-quality deliverables. This scenario depicts:
Correct
Attempting to produce deliverables of a higher quality than required to exhaust the allocated budget and satisfy the project client is known as gold plating.
Incorrect
Attempting to produce deliverables of a higher quality than required to exhaust the allocated budget and satisfy the project client is known as gold plating.
-
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
A project manager is using the Agile approach to manage a software development project. During a meeting with the team, the project manager presents the _____________ to showcase how much work still needs to be done during the current iteration.
Correct
Unlike the burnup chart which shows the completed work, a burndown chart is a graphical depiction of the work that still needs to be completed (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 108).
Incorrect
Unlike the burnup chart which shows the completed work, a burndown chart is a graphical depiction of the work that still needs to be completed (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 108).
-
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
Depending on who is using them, bids, tenders, and quotes can take on different meanings. But, initially, all of these terms can be used interchangeably with:
Correct
Bids, tenders, quotes, and proposals intersect with each other. Bids or tenders are used when the project is large and the scope of work is clear. Quotes, however, are mainly used to provide the price of particular products or services.
Incorrect
Bids, tenders, quotes, and proposals intersect with each other. Bids or tenders are used when the project is large and the scope of work is clear. Quotes, however, are mainly used to provide the price of particular products or services.
-
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
8 tasks of an Agile project release have the following story points: 3, 2, 5, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5. Given that the team’s velocity is 10, how many iterations will they need to complete all of the 8 tasks?
Correct
The sum of all tasks is 32 story points. Therefore, after calculation, you’ll find that it will take 3.2 iterations for the team to complete the tasks of the given release:
(32 story points / 10 story points = 3.2 iterations)
However, since the timebox of an iteration should not be changed, 4 iterations are needed to complete the release tasks.
Incorrect
The sum of all tasks is 32 story points. Therefore, after calculation, you’ll find that it will take 3.2 iterations for the team to complete the tasks of the given release:
(32 story points / 10 story points = 3.2 iterations)
However, since the timebox of an iteration should not be changed, 4 iterations are needed to complete the release tasks.
-
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
What defines the initial product scope?
Correct
Product scope is defined as the features and functions that characterize a solution (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 102).
Option D: The scope management plan defines how to elaborate the scope (when and how), and doesn’t include the scope of work (features and functions).
Incorrect
Product scope is defined as the features and functions that characterize a solution (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 102).
Option D: The scope management plan defines how to elaborate the scope (when and how), and doesn’t include the scope of work (features and functions).
-
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
In business analysis, what is the primary purpose of reviewing organizational charts?
Correct
Organizational charts help analysts understand how different roles and departments are interconnected, which can reveal key stakeholders who will be affected by or can influence the implementation of a new solution.
Option A: Organizational charts do not provide financial information or budget details. Budgetary constraints are typically assessed through financial reports, budget plans, and cost analyses, not organizational structures.
Option C: While organizational charts show the structure and hierarchy, they do not give insights into departmental performance. Performance evaluation requires analyzing performance metrics, KPIs, and reports.
Incorrect
Organizational charts help analysts understand how different roles and departments are interconnected, which can reveal key stakeholders who will be affected by or can influence the implementation of a new solution.
Option A: Organizational charts do not provide financial information or budget details. Budgetary constraints are typically assessed through financial reports, budget plans, and cost analyses, not organizational structures.
Option C: While organizational charts show the structure and hierarchy, they do not give insights into departmental performance. Performance evaluation requires analyzing performance metrics, KPIs, and reports.
-
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
A project manager is assigned to an amusement park project. The project comprises two phases: the first phase involves importing attractions like games and rides, and the second entails setting up and installing everything. What should the project manager do after completing the first phase?
Correct
The “Identify stakeholders” process should take place either before or concurrently while creating and approving the project charter. Stakeholders’ identification should be carried out as many times as needed. However, it should always be executed at the beginning of each project phase and whenever a significant change occurs on both the project and the organization level.
Incorrect
The “Identify stakeholders” process should take place either before or concurrently while creating and approving the project charter. Stakeholders’ identification should be carried out as many times as needed. However, it should always be executed at the beginning of each project phase and whenever a significant change occurs on both the project and the organization level.
-
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
A project manager is working in an organization that provides products on the cloud. After a 6-month study, the organization’s R&D department approved a project which will permit internet navigators to create cartoon videos using stock images, gifs, and short video clips. There will be only a $20/Month pricing plan. What type of project does this describe?
Correct
An internal project is a project in which the customer is a person or department within your company. An external project, however, is a project in which the customer is an external party, whether it is a person or an organization. The customer or the client is the person, department, or organization that is supporting the project’s development financially. The end-user of a product is not necessarily the project client or customer. Some corporations focus almost entirely on internal projects. Internet and software companies, for instance, primarily create internal projects in which they are their own client and their end-user is the general public (Fundamentals of Technology Project Management by Colleen Garton, Erika McCulloch, page 84).
Option A, C, D: There is no indication in the question that the project is large or that it adheres to a traditional or agile approach.
Incorrect
An internal project is a project in which the customer is a person or department within your company. An external project, however, is a project in which the customer is an external party, whether it is a person or an organization. The customer or the client is the person, department, or organization that is supporting the project’s development financially. The end-user of a product is not necessarily the project client or customer. Some corporations focus almost entirely on internal projects. Internet and software companies, for instance, primarily create internal projects in which they are their own client and their end-user is the general public (Fundamentals of Technology Project Management by Colleen Garton, Erika McCulloch, page 84).
Option A, C, D: There is no indication in the question that the project is large or that it adheres to a traditional or agile approach.
-
Question 47 of 150
47. Question
A project manager presented a stadium construction project that they believe will benefit the community tremendously. Despite the mayor’s agreement to carry out the project, the project manager encountered strong resistance from various stakeholders since the beginning. What should the project manager do to resolve this problem?
Correct
The project manager should schedule a meeting with the concerned stakeholders to present the project, discuss and establish ground rules, ensure their involvement and identify any personal or organizational issues. The project manager can overcome stakeholder resistance by simply listening to their concerns. The purpose is to see things from their perspective. The project manager should understand what drives and motivates the stakeholder in order to establish common ground and understand the reason behind such resistance.
Incorrect
The project manager should schedule a meeting with the concerned stakeholders to present the project, discuss and establish ground rules, ensure their involvement and identify any personal or organizational issues. The project manager can overcome stakeholder resistance by simply listening to their concerns. The purpose is to see things from their perspective. The project manager should understand what drives and motivates the stakeholder in order to establish common ground and understand the reason behind such resistance.
-
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
A project manager is assigned to lead a new project that has a predetermined budget of $170,000. Which of the following options does this situation illustrate?
Correct
A defined budget is a project limitation i.e. a constraint. A predetermined project budget sets the maximum amount of money that the project manager is allowed to spend on a particular project, representing a limiting factor (constraint) for the project that can impact its quality, delivery, and overall success.
Incorrect
A defined budget is a project limitation i.e. a constraint. A predetermined project budget sets the maximum amount of money that the project manager is allowed to spend on a particular project, representing a limiting factor (constraint) for the project that can impact its quality, delivery, and overall success.
-
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
A project manager consults a group of the organization’s subject matter experts on some points concerning his project. In order to ensure objectivity, the experts provided their input anonymously in order to prevent the influence of one opinion on the others. Which method is the project manager using?
Correct
Anonymously gathering the input of subject matter experts depicts the use of the Delphi technique, also known as the Delphi method or Delphi forecasting. This technique can be performed by sending an anonymous questionnaire or poll to gather advice from each expert, followed by a group discussion.
Incorrect
Anonymously gathering the input of subject matter experts depicts the use of the Delphi technique, also known as the Delphi method or Delphi forecasting. This technique can be performed by sending an anonymous questionnaire or poll to gather advice from each expert, followed by a group discussion.
-
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
Which category of stakeholders does subject matter experts fall into?
Correct
The category of business stakeholders is a broad one, covering all those with an interest in the business; therefore, it can be made up of other role types, such as subject matter experts or users.(PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 49).
Incorrect
The category of business stakeholders is a broad one, covering all those with an interest in the business; therefore, it can be made up of other role types, such as subject matter experts or users.(PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 49).
-
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
A business analyst is looking for analysis models to represent business workflows, system flows, and transitions. Which models would be most appropriate for this purpose? (Select two)
Correct
A process flow is a business analysis model that visually represents the steps the user takes while interacting with a solution. Similarly, when a system’s steps are illustrated, the model is referred to as a system flow. An activity diagram, another type of process model, depicts the intricate flow of use cases. While activity diagrams share similarities with process flows in terms of syntax, they typically illustrate both user and system interactions within a single diagram, closely reflecting the textual descriptions of use cases (PMI guide to business analysis, pages 198 & 199).
Option B: Data flow diagram is a business analysis model that integrates processes, systems, and data to illustrate the flow of information through a solution. It addresses how inputs are converted into outputs and how processes are represented.
Option D: An Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) is a business analysis tool that illustrates the data objects or information relevant to a business and the connections between these objects, including the cardinality of their relationships. They are more focused on data structure than on workflows or system transitions.
Option E: A context diagram visually represents the scope of a product by illustrating a business system, such as a process, equipment, or computer system and its interactions with people and other systems (actors). The context diagram doesn’t show the detailed workflows or transitions within the system.
Incorrect
A process flow is a business analysis model that visually represents the steps the user takes while interacting with a solution. Similarly, when a system’s steps are illustrated, the model is referred to as a system flow. An activity diagram, another type of process model, depicts the intricate flow of use cases. While activity diagrams share similarities with process flows in terms of syntax, they typically illustrate both user and system interactions within a single diagram, closely reflecting the textual descriptions of use cases (PMI guide to business analysis, pages 198 & 199).
Option B: Data flow diagram is a business analysis model that integrates processes, systems, and data to illustrate the flow of information through a solution. It addresses how inputs are converted into outputs and how processes are represented.
Option D: An Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) is a business analysis tool that illustrates the data objects or information relevant to a business and the connections between these objects, including the cardinality of their relationships. They are more focused on data structure than on workflows or system transitions.
Option E: A context diagram visually represents the scope of a product by illustrating a business system, such as a process, equipment, or computer system and its interactions with people and other systems (actors). The context diagram doesn’t show the detailed workflows or transitions within the system.
-
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
A project manager was assigned to organize a national event. The event has been planned and approved for execution. Three months separate the project manager from the big event, during which they will follow the iterative approach with 2-week long iterations. Before starting any work, the project manager holds a meeting with the sponsor, project team, stakeholders, and key contractors.
What kind of meeting did the project manager hold?
Correct
A Project Kick-Off Meeting is considered the formal announcement of the project approval for execution. This meeting takes place at the beginning of the project, once the plan and the project itself get approved but before executing or starting any work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179). The Project Kick-Off Meeting is usually attended by the sponsor, other managers, the project team, as well as contractors and vendors (Effective Project Management Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Hybrid 8th edition by Robert K. Wysocki Pages 273, 274).
Incorrect
A Project Kick-Off Meeting is considered the formal announcement of the project approval for execution. This meeting takes place at the beginning of the project, once the plan and the project itself get approved but before executing or starting any work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179). The Project Kick-Off Meeting is usually attended by the sponsor, other managers, the project team, as well as contractors and vendors (Effective Project Management Traditional, Agile, Extreme, Hybrid 8th edition by Robert K. Wysocki Pages 273, 274).
-
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
A project manager has been collaborating with the project sponsor to address a number of quality and risk-related issues. Which of the following statements concerning the role of the sponsor is true?
Correct
The sponsor’s role entails providing the project manager with the required tools and resources to carry out their work.
Option A, D: The sponsor does not take part in managing the project, nor do they get involved in team members’ assignments.
Option C: In a functional environment, the project manager has very limited power, therefore they can’t have the freedom to make all decisions in this type of environment.
Incorrect
The sponsor’s role entails providing the project manager with the required tools and resources to carry out their work.
Option A, D: The sponsor does not take part in managing the project, nor do they get involved in team members’ assignments.
Option C: In a functional environment, the project manager has very limited power, therefore they can’t have the freedom to make all decisions in this type of environment.
-
Question 54 of 150
54. Question
During the sprint retrospective meeting, team members expressed frustration about wasting time going back and forth with the product owner to schedule the backlog refinement meeting. To address this issue, the project manager proposed establishing a recurring event. When should this event be scheduled?
Correct
In an iteration-based agile project, the product owner works with the team to refine the backlog and prepare user stories for the next iterations throughout one or multiple sessions, in the middle of the iteration (Agile Practice Guide, page 67).
Incorrect
In an iteration-based agile project, the product owner works with the team to refine the backlog and prepare user stories for the next iterations throughout one or multiple sessions, in the middle of the iteration (Agile Practice Guide, page 67).
-
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
A project manager is leading a business transformation project. As part of the project scope, a survey with 10 experts has to be conducted. During project execution, the project sponsor asked to raise the number of experts to 20, explaining that 10 experts might not provide enough input and insight. The sponsor also requested making this adjustment without issuing a change request. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Any change to the project management plan should go through the organization’s change control process by issuing a change request.
Incorrect
Any change to the project management plan should go through the organization’s change control process by issuing a change request.
-
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
A project is behind schedule since the functional manager reassigned three team members to other projects. After negotiating with the functional manager, the project manager agreed to a temporary solution that would enable them to get one team member back for the time being, with a follow-up discussion after two weeks to re-address the issue. What conflict resolution technique did the project manager employ in this situation?
Correct
The compromise approach to conflict resolution is characterized by searching for solutions that bring a certain level of satisfaction to all parties involved in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict (PMBOK 7th edition, page 168). In the question, a temporary solution was suggested to ensure some degree of satisfaction for both the project manager and the functional manager (a lose-lose situation).
Option D: Smoothing emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference, leading to a yield-lose situation.
Incorrect
The compromise approach to conflict resolution is characterized by searching for solutions that bring a certain level of satisfaction to all parties involved in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict (PMBOK 7th edition, page 168). In the question, a temporary solution was suggested to ensure some degree of satisfaction for both the project manager and the functional manager (a lose-lose situation).
Option D: Smoothing emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference, leading to a yield-lose situation.
-
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
A project manager attended a meeting to finalize a procurement that was still in the negotiation stage. However, they observed that discussions often strayed to unrelated subjects, with attendees occasionally returning to the main topic. Which of the following elements does this meeting lack? (Select two)
Correct
The meeting probably does not have either a clear agenda or a facilitator. An agenda organizes and structures a meeting’s discussions, while a facilitator ensures that the agenda is being followed and respected.
Option A: Minutes of Meeting, aka MoM, is a summary of what happened during a meeting. MoM serves as a written record for future reference, thus they cannot be what caused this meeting to be chaotic.
Option C: The meeting already has an objective; concluding a procurement in the negotiation phase. But, since no one is assigned to facilitate the meeting, it’s probable that the objective was not appropriately communicated to all attendees in the first place, resulting in the described chaos.
Incorrect
The meeting probably does not have either a clear agenda or a facilitator. An agenda organizes and structures a meeting’s discussions, while a facilitator ensures that the agenda is being followed and respected.
Option A: Minutes of Meeting, aka MoM, is a summary of what happened during a meeting. MoM serves as a written record for future reference, thus they cannot be what caused this meeting to be chaotic.
Option C: The meeting already has an objective; concluding a procurement in the negotiation phase. But, since no one is assigned to facilitate the meeting, it’s probable that the objective was not appropriately communicated to all attendees in the first place, resulting in the described chaos.
-
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
A project manager is using an adaptive approach that excludes daily standups and does not employ time-boxed iterations. Which framework is the project manager implementing?
Correct
Kanban focuses on visualizing work, managing flow, and continuous delivery using a board without specific time-boxed iterations or daily standups. All the other options use daily standups and/or increments
Incorrect
Kanban focuses on visualizing work, managing flow, and continuous delivery using a board without specific time-boxed iterations or daily standups. All the other options use daily standups and/or increments
-
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
What are the components of the scope baseline? (select three)
Correct
The scope statement provides a comprehensive description of the project’s scope, including its major deliverables and exclusions. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the entire scope of work required to achieve project objectives and deliver the desired outcomes. The WBS Dictionary is a comprehensive document that offers detailed information about each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). It includes specifics on deliverables, activities, and schedules, providing a clear and structured understanding of the project’s elements.
Incorrect
The scope statement provides a comprehensive description of the project’s scope, including its major deliverables and exclusions. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the entire scope of work required to achieve project objectives and deliver the desired outcomes. The WBS Dictionary is a comprehensive document that offers detailed information about each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). It includes specifics on deliverables, activities, and schedules, providing a clear and structured understanding of the project’s elements.
-
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
Shortly after starting the second phase of the project, the project manager meets with the sponsor to check if any potential players were left out in the first phase and to discuss these new stakeholders’ influence. This activity can be identified as:
Correct
The project manager is identifying stakeholders and analyzing their level of influence. Although the project has been active for two months, it is recommended to perform this activity on a regular basis, especially when the project gets into a new phase.
Incorrect
The project manager is identifying stakeholders and analyzing their level of influence. Although the project has been active for two months, it is recommended to perform this activity on a regular basis, especially when the project gets into a new phase.
-
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
In order to review the requirements for errors and quality. What activity is performed by the team to ensure that requirements meet quality standards? (Select two)
Correct
An inspection is a structured and detailed review process where an individual closely familiar with the work examines it for completeness, consistency, and conformance to both internal and external standards. This often involves using a checklist to assess requirements and offer feedback. Inspections can include walkthroughs or day-in-the-life testing. In contrast, a peer review is conducted by one or more colleagues who assess the work completed by the business analyst. This reviewer could be another business analyst, a team lead, or a quality control team member.
Option E: Audit is performed to make sure that all processes and procedures are followed. It’s not used to review the requirements.
Incorrect
An inspection is a structured and detailed review process where an individual closely familiar with the work examines it for completeness, consistency, and conformance to both internal and external standards. This often involves using a checklist to assess requirements and offer feedback. Inspections can include walkthroughs or day-in-the-life testing. In contrast, a peer review is conducted by one or more colleagues who assess the work completed by the business analyst. This reviewer could be another business analyst, a team lead, or a quality control team member.
Option E: Audit is performed to make sure that all processes and procedures are followed. It’s not used to review the requirements.
-
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
In order to explain to the client the meaning of a story point in the agile methodology, a project manager states that a story point can be defined as:
Correct
A story point is a metric used to estimate the difficulty of carrying out a given user story in an agile project. In other words, it is an abstract measure of the effort required to implement a user story. A story point is simply a number that indicates the difficulty level of the story. The difficulty varies depending on the complexities, risks, and efforts involved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 178).
Incorrect
A story point is a metric used to estimate the difficulty of carrying out a given user story in an agile project. In other words, it is an abstract measure of the effort required to implement a user story. A story point is simply a number that indicates the difficulty level of the story. The difficulty varies depending on the complexities, risks, and efforts involved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 178).
-
Question 63 of 150
63. Question
A project manager is in charge of the construction project of a shopping center. Project work entails involving multiple subcontractors to perform paving, road connection, and parking lot lighting activities. During the project execution, the paving contractor informs the project manager that the district has increased the cost of linking the parking lot to the city drive. Which of the following communication methods should the subcontractor use to convey this information?
Correct
The cost increase should be tracked and communicated using a cost variance report.
Option B: A formal representation of the cost increase is not necessary.
Options C & D: A memo is not the appropriate means in this situation.
Incorrect
The cost increase should be tracked and communicated using a cost variance report.
Option B: A formal representation of the cost increase is not necessary.
Options C & D: A memo is not the appropriate means in this situation.
-
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
Which of the following is not a key role or responsibility of a business analyst?
Correct
While business analysts may define acceptance criteria and ensure that the requirements are met, the actual process of quality assurance, including testing and validation, is typically the responsibility of a dedicated QA team
Incorrect
While business analysts may define acceptance criteria and ensure that the requirements are met, the actual process of quality assurance, including testing and validation, is typically the responsibility of a dedicated QA team
-
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
A project manager of a distressed project had been replaced by a new one. While the new project manager was examining the network diagram, they found five critical paths and two near-critical paths. What does this indicate about the project?
Correct
According to the network diagram, the project is at high risk. With five critical paths and two near-critical paths, any delay of any activity belonging to these paths will result in the whole project’s delay. Having more than one critical and near-critical path does not mean that the project requires more resources and an increase in the allocated budget. On the other hand, just because the project is at high risk of schedule delay does not mean it should be terminated.
Incorrect
According to the network diagram, the project is at high risk. With five critical paths and two near-critical paths, any delay of any activity belonging to these paths will result in the whole project’s delay. Having more than one critical and near-critical path does not mean that the project requires more resources and an increase in the allocated budget. On the other hand, just because the project is at high risk of schedule delay does not mean it should be terminated.
-
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
To ensure that the scope and performance are validated, who should the business analyst address to gain formal acceptance of the deliverables?
Correct
Scope and performance validation includes scheduled meetings with the sponsor or customer to formally obtain acceptance of the deliverables. The task of evaluating solution performance is typically led by the business analyst or someone fulfilling that role.
Option D: End users provide feedback and may perform testing, but the formal acceptance usually comes from the project sponsor, who represents the business’s interests.
Incorrect
Scope and performance validation includes scheduled meetings with the sponsor or customer to formally obtain acceptance of the deliverables. The task of evaluating solution performance is typically led by the business analyst or someone fulfilling that role.
Option D: End users provide feedback and may perform testing, but the formal acceptance usually comes from the project sponsor, who represents the business’s interests.
-
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
A project manager is managing a project for a startup that needs to quickly deliver a Minimum Viable Product (MVP) to capture an opportunity in the market. Which of the following development approaches would be best suited for focusing on delivering value as quickly as possible?
Correct
Incremental development approach is where the deliverable is incrementally enhanced by adding functionality in successive iterations until it meets the required capabilities and is deemed complete. It provides finished deliverables such as the MVP that the customer may be able to use immediately.
Incorrect
Incremental development approach is where the deliverable is incrementally enhanced by adding functionality in successive iterations until it meets the required capabilities and is deemed complete. It provides finished deliverables such as the MVP that the customer may be able to use immediately.
-
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
In the plan schedule management process, which tool is used to prepare the schedule management plan?
Correct
Data analysis includes techniques such as alternatives analysis in which it’s used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to execute and perform project work. Data analysis techniques are used to organize, assess, and evaluate data and information (PMI Process Groups Guide, page 89).
Option B: Data collection refers to gathering information, in which it’s not considered a tool used to “plan schedule management”.
Option C, D: Decomposition and rolling wave planning are techniques for “define activities” process rather than “plan schedule management” process.
Incorrect
Data analysis includes techniques such as alternatives analysis in which it’s used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to execute and perform project work. Data analysis techniques are used to organize, assess, and evaluate data and information (PMI Process Groups Guide, page 89).
Option B: Data collection refers to gathering information, in which it’s not considered a tool used to “plan schedule management”.
Option C, D: Decomposition and rolling wave planning are techniques for “define activities” process rather than “plan schedule management” process.
-
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
A project manager is leading a project for developing an online furniture store. Developing the online store internally would cost $100,000, plus a $3,000 monthly maintenance fee. When exploring the option of developing the online store externally, the project manager received an offer from a vendor to create the store for $50,000 plus $4 per transaction to administer the e-store, knowing that the online store will potentially have an average of 1000 transactions per month during the first year. Which of the following methods can help the project manager determine and choose the best option?
Correct
The decision tree method can help the project manager choose the best option for their project. Decision trees are used to support the selection of the best course of action among several alternative possible options. The decision tree uses branches representing the different decisions or events and their associated costs and risks.
Incorrect
The decision tree method can help the project manager choose the best option for their project. Decision trees are used to support the selection of the best course of action among several alternative possible options. The decision tree uses branches representing the different decisions or events and their associated costs and risks.
-
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
A project manager is carrying out the initial planning activities for a gas pipeline construction project. While estimating the installation activity, one team member mentioned that they completed the same length of pipes in 14 hours during a previous similar project. Another team member asserts that they can install 100 meters of gas pipes per hour. The team will need to run a total of 1000 meters of pipes. Using the analogous estimating technique, how many hours will it take the team to run the gas pipeline?
Correct
Unlike parametric estimating, the analogous estimating technique uses expert judgment by comparing a particular activity to a similarly completed one on a previous project in order to determine its duration or cost. This means that the project manager should rely on expert feedback, i.e., completing a similar task in 14 hours.
Incorrect
Unlike parametric estimating, the analogous estimating technique uses expert judgment by comparing a particular activity to a similarly completed one on a previous project in order to determine its duration or cost. This means that the project manager should rely on expert feedback, i.e., completing a similar task in 14 hours.
-
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
Which of the following statements best describes the application of systems thinking at the organizational level?
Correct
Systems thinking requires both a holistic and detailed perspective, focusing on the organization as a system of interconnected parts. Systems thinking involves recognizing the organization as a collection of people, processes, and tools and analyzing how changes in one component can impact other related components. This comprehensive view is essential to effectively manage organizational changes and understand their broader implications (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 370).
Incorrect
Systems thinking requires both a holistic and detailed perspective, focusing on the organization as a system of interconnected parts. Systems thinking involves recognizing the organization as a collection of people, processes, and tools and analyzing how changes in one component can impact other related components. This comprehensive view is essential to effectively manage organizational changes and understand their broader implications (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 370).
-
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
A project manager is responsible for leading a hybrid project with remote team members dispersed across four continents. As a result, the team has experienced communication issues. What can the project manager do to alleviate the team’s communication challenges? (Select two)
Correct
Fishbowl windows and remote pairing are two techniques used to manage communication in remote teams. The project manager can create fishbowl windows by initiating long-lived video conferences, where team members join in at the beginning of the workday and leave at the end. Remote pairing, on the other hand, is when two or more people join an online event at a specific time to discuss and share screens when needed (Agile Practice Guide, page 46).
Option B: Changing the project life cycle from hybrid to agile won’t have any significant impact on communication if team members don’t take any specific measures or techniques to improve the way they interact with each other.
Option C: Colocating the team is not always feasible due to many considerations such as cost, talent availability, regulations, etc. However, when possible, getting the team together in person on a regular basis is a good practice.
Incorrect
Fishbowl windows and remote pairing are two techniques used to manage communication in remote teams. The project manager can create fishbowl windows by initiating long-lived video conferences, where team members join in at the beginning of the workday and leave at the end. Remote pairing, on the other hand, is when two or more people join an online event at a specific time to discuss and share screens when needed (Agile Practice Guide, page 46).
Option B: Changing the project life cycle from hybrid to agile won’t have any significant impact on communication if team members don’t take any specific measures or techniques to improve the way they interact with each other.
Option C: Colocating the team is not always feasible due to many considerations such as cost, talent availability, regulations, etc. However, when possible, getting the team together in person on a regular basis is a good practice.
-
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
A stakeholder is pressuring the project team to make some changes to the final product. The project manager informs the client that the changes cannot be implemented immediately due to the organization’s established processes. Which of the following documents these processes?
Correct
The Change Control System is a set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled (PMBOK 7th edition, page 237).
Incorrect
The Change Control System is a set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled (PMBOK 7th edition, page 237).
-
Question 74 of 150
74. Question
Wanting to have their own home, a couple decided to build a tiny house and started planning for the project. However, when it came to interior design, they seemed to disagree on many details. Since the couple wanted to get their house ready by the end of the year, they decided to launch the construction work first and decide about the interior design details later on. What technique did the couple use?
Correct
The Rolling wave method is used to address uncertainty by planning near-term work in detail while planning future tasks in a more broad manner (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 249). It’s a form of progressive elaboration that sets up near-term plans and “rolls” into the longer term as more details become available. In this way, rolling wave planning allows work to progress in current and near-term deliverables while planning for potential work packages continues.
Incorrect
The Rolling wave method is used to address uncertainty by planning near-term work in detail while planning future tasks in a more broad manner (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 249). It’s a form of progressive elaboration that sets up near-term plans and “rolls” into the longer term as more details become available. In this way, rolling wave planning allows work to progress in current and near-term deliverables while planning for potential work packages continues.
-
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
A project manager asked the project team to perform benchmarking, brainstorming sessions, focus groups, interviews, and questionnaires. What are these tools and techniques used for?
Correct
In this case, the project is currently in the Collect Requirements process, which involves identifying and documenting the needs and requirements of stakeholders. Data gathering takes part in the Collect Requirements process to obtain stakeholders’ requirements. It puts in use tools and techniques like benchmarking, brainstorming, focus groups, interviews, questionnaires, and surveys.
Incorrect
In this case, the project is currently in the Collect Requirements process, which involves identifying and documenting the needs and requirements of stakeholders. Data gathering takes part in the Collect Requirements process to obtain stakeholders’ requirements. It puts in use tools and techniques like benchmarking, brainstorming, focus groups, interviews, questionnaires, and surveys.
-
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
To collect more funding, a project manager sends their project’s business case to an investor who happens to be quite demanding, as they might reject a project because its goal is not SMART. What does “S” stand for?
Correct
SMART is an acronym that stands for Specific, Meaningful, Achievable, Relevant, and Timely (PMBOK 7th edition, page 97). Each letter in SMART can have other alternatives, except the “S” which commonly refers to “Specific” or “Strategic and Specific”.
Incorrect
SMART is an acronym that stands for Specific, Meaningful, Achievable, Relevant, and Timely (PMBOK 7th edition, page 97). Each letter in SMART can have other alternatives, except the “S” which commonly refers to “Specific” or “Strategic and Specific”.
-
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
In which process group do stakeholders have the most influence over a project?
Correct
Stakeholders have the most influence and impact on a predictive project at its early stages. Stakeholder influence is mostly perceived in the early stages of the project. The project is flexible at this stage and can be changed and stakeholders generally take advantage of this. Once it starts to progress, the project takes on momentum and power of its own, thus, the cost of stopping it or altering its direction becomes very high.
Incorrect
Stakeholders have the most influence and impact on a predictive project at its early stages. Stakeholder influence is mostly perceived in the early stages of the project. The project is flexible at this stage and can be changed and stakeholders generally take advantage of this. Once it starts to progress, the project takes on momentum and power of its own, thus, the cost of stopping it or altering its direction becomes very high.
-
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
Which of the following Fixed Price contracts should be used for currency fluctuations?
Correct
Currency fluctuations can be handled using a Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) contract. This type of contract allows the adjustment of the fixed price or rate of the contract. The buyer and seller agree on pre-defined criteria for this adjustment. This is often used for long-term projects that can span multiple years to adapt to market uncertainties and changes. The criteria to adjust the fixed price are based on market conditions that are beyond the control of both the buyer and seller, including changes in the cost of labor and material, general inflation, and fluctuations in the currency market.
Option C: In a Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF), the buyer pays the seller a defined amount plus an additional incentive if the seller meets defined performance criteria.
Option D: A Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP) includes a fixed price that the buyer pays the seller regardless of the seller’s costs. Fixed Price with Currency Adjustment is a made-up term.
Incorrect
Currency fluctuations can be handled using a Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) contract. This type of contract allows the adjustment of the fixed price or rate of the contract. The buyer and seller agree on pre-defined criteria for this adjustment. This is often used for long-term projects that can span multiple years to adapt to market uncertainties and changes. The criteria to adjust the fixed price are based on market conditions that are beyond the control of both the buyer and seller, including changes in the cost of labor and material, general inflation, and fluctuations in the currency market.
Option C: In a Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF), the buyer pays the seller a defined amount plus an additional incentive if the seller meets defined performance criteria.
Option D: A Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP) includes a fixed price that the buyer pays the seller regardless of the seller’s costs. Fixed Price with Currency Adjustment is a made-up term.
-
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
A web development project is planned with a series of tasks scheduled over a three-month period. The initial schedule has a high workload for the developers in certain weeks, leading to potential burnout and inefficiencies. The project manager used the resource smoothing technique to balance the workload. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
The project calendar outlines the available working days and shifts for scheduling project activities.
Incorrect
The project calendar outlines the available working days and shifts for scheduling project activities.
-
Question 80 of 150
80. Question
A project manager is in charge of an ergonomic chair design project. Upon the identification of some technical risks, the project manager decides it’s best to create a prototype. This is an example of risk:
Correct
Risk mitigation can imply prototype development in order to prevent the risk from scaling up. Creating a prototype will support the testing and through testing, you can generate the necessary data to probably even close the risk. To keep costs low, you can opt for partial prototypes for the specific portions of the process that involve the risk.
Incorrect
Risk mitigation can imply prototype development in order to prevent the risk from scaling up. Creating a prototype will support the testing and through testing, you can generate the necessary data to probably even close the risk. To keep costs low, you can opt for partial prototypes for the specific portions of the process that involve the risk.
-
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
A business analyst is tasked with leading the development of a new product for their company. The goal is to ensure the new product meets market needs and aligns with the company’s strategic objectives. What should the business analyst perform?
Correct
Gap analysis involves comparing the current state with the desired future state to identify any gaps that need to be addressed. It ensures that the product development aligns with the strategic objectives and market needs.
Option A: While market analysis is the activity of collecting information about factors that influence a marketplace, it does not take into account the company’s strategic objectives.
Option B: Developing a project plan comes after the initial research and analysis to ensure the plan is based on accurate market insights and identified gaps.
Option C: Benchmarking involves comparing an organization’s products, services and processes to industry best performance and practices from other competitors.
Incorrect
Gap analysis involves comparing the current state with the desired future state to identify any gaps that need to be addressed. It ensures that the product development aligns with the strategic objectives and market needs.
Option A: While market analysis is the activity of collecting information about factors that influence a marketplace, it does not take into account the company’s strategic objectives.
Option B: Developing a project plan comes after the initial research and analysis to ensure the plan is based on accurate market insights and identified gaps.
Option C: Benchmarking involves comparing an organization’s products, services and processes to industry best performance and practices from other competitors.
-
Question 82 of 150
82. Question
A program manager oversees multiple project teams, each working on different projects and conducts its own daily standup meeting separately. Each team has an assigned member to attend a regular status meeting, Which methodology is being implemented?
Correct
Daily scrum or daily stand-up meeting is a daily huddle meeting where the development team members inspect progress toward the Sprint goal, adjust the upcoming planned work, and rise encountered obstacles or impediments.
The Scrum of Scrums technique as defined in (Agile practise guide, page 126) is used when two or more Scrum teams consisting of three to nine members each need to coordinate their work instead of one large Scrum team. A representative from each team attends a meeting with the other team representative(s).
Option C: Large Scale Scrum (LeSS) as defined in (Agile practice guide, page 128) is a framework designed to coordinate multiple development teams working towards a unified goal. Its central principle is to preserve as many elements of the standard single-team Scrum model as possible, thereby minimizing extensions that could introduce unnecessary complexity.
Incorrect
Daily scrum or daily stand-up meeting is a daily huddle meeting where the development team members inspect progress toward the Sprint goal, adjust the upcoming planned work, and rise encountered obstacles or impediments.
The Scrum of Scrums technique as defined in (Agile practise guide, page 126) is used when two or more Scrum teams consisting of three to nine members each need to coordinate their work instead of one large Scrum team. A representative from each team attends a meeting with the other team representative(s).
Option C: Large Scale Scrum (LeSS) as defined in (Agile practice guide, page 128) is a framework designed to coordinate multiple development teams working towards a unified goal. Its central principle is to preserve as many elements of the standard single-team Scrum model as possible, thereby minimizing extensions that could introduce unnecessary complexity.
-
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
A project manager got the approval to carry out a significant change that would bring added value to the project. The change has a total cost of $10,000 and will add one month to the project’s duration. What should the project manager do right after getting the change approved?
Correct
As soon as a change gets approved, the project manager must update the time, cost, and scope baselines to reflect the impact of the change on all project aspects.
Option A, C: Each change gets through review as well as risk assessment by the Change Control Board (CCB) before getting approved or rejected.
Option D: A change control system represents a description of the way changes to the project scope should be managed. Actual changes are not part of the change control system
Incorrect
As soon as a change gets approved, the project manager must update the time, cost, and scope baselines to reflect the impact of the change on all project aspects.
Option A, C: Each change gets through review as well as risk assessment by the Change Control Board (CCB) before getting approved or rejected.
Option D: A change control system represents a description of the way changes to the project scope should be managed. Actual changes are not part of the change control system
-
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
The project team did not understand the project requirements. Who’s responsible for requirements elicitation?
Correct
The business analyst is the one responsible for gathering, analyzing, and documenting the requirements. They ensure that the project team understands what needs to be built.
Incorrect
The business analyst is the one responsible for gathering, analyzing, and documenting the requirements. They ensure that the project team understands what needs to be built.
-
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
The following statements concern some tasks of a hybrid project:
Task A is not yet complete
Task B is not accepted because of a security issue
Task C had a huge impact on the burndown chart
Task D is added to the product backlog based on customer feedback
The above statements concerning tasks A, B, C, D should be respectively classified as:
Correct
Task A is not yet complete: Data. Work performance data is the raw measurements and observations made during project execution (PMI – Process groups guide, page 23).
Task B is not accepted because of a security issue: Information. When data is analyzed, it becomes information.
Task C had a huge impact on the burndown chart: Report. Examining the whole picture in a burndown chart is a form of reporting.
Task D is added to the product backlog based on customer feedback: Practice. The activity of creating, refining, estimating, and prioritizing product backlog items is one of the agile practices.
Please note that in the real exam such a question usually comes in the form of “matching”.
Incorrect
Task A is not yet complete: Data. Work performance data is the raw measurements and observations made during project execution (PMI – Process groups guide, page 23).
Task B is not accepted because of a security issue: Information. When data is analyzed, it becomes information.
Task C had a huge impact on the burndown chart: Report. Examining the whole picture in a burndown chart is a form of reporting.
Task D is added to the product backlog based on customer feedback: Practice. The activity of creating, refining, estimating, and prioritizing product backlog items is one of the agile practices.
Please note that in the real exam such a question usually comes in the form of “matching”.
-
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
During a sprint planning, a team member mentioned that some events are missing. What should the project manager add? (Select three)
Correct
The Daily Scrum is a brief, time-boxed meeting held each day during a sprint, typically lasting 15 minutes. Its purpose is to provide a regular opportunity for the Scrum team to synchronize their work, discuss progress, and plan the day’s activities. A retrospective is a recurring workshop where participants reflect on their work and outcomes to enhance both the process and the product. It serves as a structured opportunity for team members to evaluate what went well, identify areas for improvement, and apply lessons learned to future sprints. A Sprint Review, or Iteration Review, is conducted at the conclusion of each iteration to showcase and evaluate the work completed. This meeting provides an opportunity to demonstrate the results achieved during the iteration and gather feedback from stakeholders.
Incorrect
The Daily Scrum is a brief, time-boxed meeting held each day during a sprint, typically lasting 15 minutes. Its purpose is to provide a regular opportunity for the Scrum team to synchronize their work, discuss progress, and plan the day’s activities. A retrospective is a recurring workshop where participants reflect on their work and outcomes to enhance both the process and the product. It serves as a structured opportunity for team members to evaluate what went well, identify areas for improvement, and apply lessons learned to future sprints. A Sprint Review, or Iteration Review, is conducted at the conclusion of each iteration to showcase and evaluate the work completed. This meeting provides an opportunity to demonstrate the results achieved during the iteration and gather feedback from stakeholders.
-
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
A project manager is managing a project using a hybrid approach. After one week of the first iteration, the customer informs the project manager that they were dissatisfied with the deliverables. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
The first thing the project manager should do is listen to the customer, take note of the reasons behind their dissatisfaction, and verify the deliverables. Once this is done, the project manager will be equipped with all of the needed information to make the best decision. If they realize that it’s just a misunderstanding or the customer is missing some details regarding the project deliverables, then they can simply use their soft skills to explain and convince them that the deliverables are good. However, if the deliverables do not meet specifications or require improvement, then they should plan to implement changes in the upcoming iterations according to the priorities set by the customer. Since the project is hybrid, the project manager may also need to ask the customer to submit a change request if out-of-scope work is requested.
Incorrect
The first thing the project manager should do is listen to the customer, take note of the reasons behind their dissatisfaction, and verify the deliverables. Once this is done, the project manager will be equipped with all of the needed information to make the best decision. If they realize that it’s just a misunderstanding or the customer is missing some details regarding the project deliverables, then they can simply use their soft skills to explain and convince them that the deliverables are good. However, if the deliverables do not meet specifications or require improvement, then they should plan to implement changes in the upcoming iterations according to the priorities set by the customer. Since the project is hybrid, the project manager may also need to ask the customer to submit a change request if out-of-scope work is requested.
-
Question 88 of 150
88. Question
To take into consideration the Triple Bottom Line, the project manager invites the sponsor to attend a meeting for defining the scope of a new project. What are the three elements of the Triple Bottom Line?
Correct
The Triple Bottom Line (TBL) is a sustainability framework for evaluating a company’s bottom line from the perspectives of profit, people, and the planet (PMBOK 7th edition, page 252). This concept implies that companies should commit to measuring their social and environmental impact, in addition to their financial performance, rather than solely focusing on generating profit.
Incorrect
The Triple Bottom Line (TBL) is a sustainability framework for evaluating a company’s bottom line from the perspectives of profit, people, and the planet (PMBOK 7th edition, page 252). This concept implies that companies should commit to measuring their social and environmental impact, in addition to their financial performance, rather than solely focusing on generating profit.
-
Question 89 of 150
89. Question
A project manager is in charge of the creation of an online catalog of the company’s products. A particular team member is managing documentation. Even though this member is doing a great job, their work pace is way slower than expected, which can cause the whole project to miss its deadline. What should the project manager do first in this situation?
Correct
Before taking any corrective measures, the project manager should determine the underlying cause of the problem. If it turns out that the concerned team member is overallocated.
Incorrect
Before taking any corrective measures, the project manager should determine the underlying cause of the problem. If it turns out that the concerned team member is overallocated.
-
Question 90 of 150
90. Question
A project manager has completed the first phase of a project. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
Phase reviews, aka phase gates, phase exits, phase entrances, and stage gates, is a formal review of the project to evaluate its status. The results are documented and presented to the concerned stakeholders or the sponsor in order to get their approval to proceed to the next phase in the project lifecycle. (PMBOK 7th edition, page 244).
Incorrect
Phase reviews, aka phase gates, phase exits, phase entrances, and stage gates, is a formal review of the project to evaluate its status. The results are documented and presented to the concerned stakeholders or the sponsor in order to get their approval to proceed to the next phase in the project lifecycle. (PMBOK 7th edition, page 244).
-
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
A project manager is leading a project using an iterative development approach. During which meeting is a potentially shippable product increment presented to the concerned stakeholders?
Correct
The project team is expected to deliver shippable product features by the end of each iteration. During the Iteration Review meeting, the project team demonstrates their work to the product owner and concerned stakeholders, in order to get feedback and approval (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
Incorrect
The project team is expected to deliver shippable product features by the end of each iteration. During the Iteration Review meeting, the project team demonstrates their work to the product owner and concerned stakeholders, in order to get feedback and approval (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
-
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
Which practices are essential for effective business stewardship? (Select two)
Correct
Promoting business analysis effectiveness involves fostering a mindset of continuous improvement and growth. This mindset encourages business analysts to identify opportunities to adapt processes and tools, aiming to deliver maximum value based on organizational needs. Enhancing business analysis capability through the language, practices, and tools of business analysis within the organization, making them more familiar and effective
(Business Analysis For Practitioners, page 93).
Option A: Hiring more business analysts without having a goal to improve business processes will not make business stewardship more effective.
Option C: Implementing a PMO could contribute to the effectiveness of business stewardship, however the PMO is not an essential practice. Not all organizations have the business need or the adequate size to set up a PMO.
Option E: Maintaining the status quo in business processes contradicts the idea of stewardship, which involves ensuring that business analysis practices evolve and improve over time. Maintaining the status quo does not align with the goal of enhancing effectiveness or capability.
Incorrect
Promoting business analysis effectiveness involves fostering a mindset of continuous improvement and growth. This mindset encourages business analysts to identify opportunities to adapt processes and tools, aiming to deliver maximum value based on organizational needs. Enhancing business analysis capability through the language, practices, and tools of business analysis within the organization, making them more familiar and effective
(Business Analysis For Practitioners, page 93).
Option A: Hiring more business analysts without having a goal to improve business processes will not make business stewardship more effective.
Option C: Implementing a PMO could contribute to the effectiveness of business stewardship, however the PMO is not an essential practice. Not all organizations have the business need or the adequate size to set up a PMO.
Option E: Maintaining the status quo in business processes contradicts the idea of stewardship, which involves ensuring that business analysis practices evolve and improve over time. Maintaining the status quo does not align with the goal of enhancing effectiveness or capability.
-
Question 93 of 150
93. Question
A subcontractor is engaged to install the electrical wiring of a construction project. A stakeholder requests a modification in the project’s scope, which will result in a change in the subcontractor’s workload. Which of the following documents will address how the change in the subcontractor’s workload will be handled?
Correct
The contract comprises all of the other mentioned documents. Any changes to any of the predetermined contract terms between the subcontractor and the project manager, including the defined scope of work, should be addressed in the contract.
Incorrect
The contract comprises all of the other mentioned documents. Any changes to any of the predetermined contract terms between the subcontractor and the project manager, including the defined scope of work, should be addressed in the contract.
-
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
During a sprint review meeting, a team member demonstrated a new feature and pointed out that it took longer than expected due to missing technical documentation. Then, they asked a senior team member how they could avoid this in the future. What should the meeting facilitator do?
Correct
The retrospective meeting is the right meeting to reflect on what happened during the sprint and how to improve the implemented processes. Therefore, rather than discussing how to improve future work efficiency, the meeting facilitator should steer back the discussion to only focus on the demonstrated feature and get the product owner’s feedback on what has been produced. This being said, if the documentation needs improvement, team members should create a technical task for it and demonstrate its importance to the product owner during Sprint Planning.
Incorrect
The retrospective meeting is the right meeting to reflect on what happened during the sprint and how to improve the implemented processes. Therefore, rather than discussing how to improve future work efficiency, the meeting facilitator should steer back the discussion to only focus on the demonstrated feature and get the product owner’s feedback on what has been produced. This being said, if the documentation needs improvement, team members should create a technical task for it and demonstrate its importance to the product owner during Sprint Planning.
-
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
Which of the following may lead to changes in the product scope?
Correct
Once the business case is approved, the chosen solution approach sets the initial product scope. At this stage, the product scope is defined broadly by the capabilities and features linked to the selected option. As the product team conducts further analysis, the product scope is continuously refined. During the initiative, the product scope may be adjusted to accommodate evolving business needs, emerging risks, or constraints related to budget or schedule. (PMI guide to business analysis, page 103)
Incorrect
Once the business case is approved, the chosen solution approach sets the initial product scope. At this stage, the product scope is defined broadly by the capabilities and features linked to the selected option. As the product team conducts further analysis, the product scope is continuously refined. During the initiative, the product scope may be adjusted to accommodate evolving business needs, emerging risks, or constraints related to budget or schedule. (PMI guide to business analysis, page 103)
-
Question 96 of 150
96. Question
A team has 100 story points in the product backlog and a velocity of 30 points per iteration. Taking into consideration that the iteration is two weeks long, how many weeks does the team need to complete the backlog?
Correct
It will take the project team 3.3 iterations to complete the backlog work items:
(100 story points / 30 story points = 3.3 iterations)
It would take 4 iterations to complete the work because the timebox of the iteration shouldn’t be changed. Since the question specifically asks how many weeks are needed for completing work, then 8 weeks is the right answer.
Incorrect
It will take the project team 3.3 iterations to complete the backlog work items:
(100 story points / 30 story points = 3.3 iterations)
It would take 4 iterations to complete the work because the timebox of the iteration shouldn’t be changed. Since the question specifically asks how many weeks are needed for completing work, then 8 weeks is the right answer.
-
Question 97 of 150
97. Question
The Earned Value (EV) is less than the Planned Value (PV). What does this mean?
Correct
Schedule Variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance. It’s calculated through the difference between the Earned Value and Planned Value (SV = EV – PV). When the SV is negative, it indicates that the project is behind what was initially planned. When the SV is positive, it indicates that the project is ahead of what was originally planned.
Incorrect
Schedule Variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance. It’s calculated through the difference between the Earned Value and Planned Value (SV = EV – PV). When the SV is negative, it indicates that the project is behind what was initially planned. When the SV is positive, it indicates that the project is ahead of what was originally planned.
-
Question 98 of 150
98. Question
What can a project manager use Source Selection criteria for?
Correct
Source Selection Criteria is a valuable tool for choosing a qualified seller from a short-list of potential candidates. This method can help the buyer ensure that the selected seller will offer the best quality for the products or services required.
Incorrect
Source Selection Criteria is a valuable tool for choosing a qualified seller from a short-list of potential candidates. This method can help the buyer ensure that the selected seller will offer the best quality for the products or services required.
-
Question 99 of 150
99. Question
A project manager is leading a 3-year project that involves upgrading and improving an electric engine for industrial use. Since the majority of the project activities are hazardous, the project team will receive extensive safety training. The training will ensure the safety of workers and prevent delays caused by unsatisfactory work. The cost of the conducted safety training falls under:
Correct
Training costs fall under the cost of conformance to quality.
Incorrect
Training costs fall under the cost of conformance to quality.
-
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
A project manager is in charge of a project for creating a next-generation vehicle. Before the assembly of the vehicle can be performed, the wheels have to be designed and built. Which type of dependency does this situation depict?
Correct
A mandatory dependency is also called a hard dependency or hard logic. For example, consider 2 activities A and B, if B has a mandatory dependency on A, it means action on B cannot be performed until action on A has been completed.
Option A: External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-project activities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
Option B: A discretionary or soft logic dependency, on the other hand, is an optional or preferred dependency.
Incorrect
A mandatory dependency is also called a hard dependency or hard logic. For example, consider 2 activities A and B, if B has a mandatory dependency on A, it means action on B cannot be performed until action on A has been completed.
Option A: External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-project activities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
Option B: A discretionary or soft logic dependency, on the other hand, is an optional or preferred dependency.
-
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
During a meeting with stakeholders, the project manager is asked about the amount of work completed by the agile team during the last sprint. What information should the project manager share with stakeholders?
Correct
Velocity is the sum of the story point sizes for the features actually completed in this iteration. Velocity allows the team to plan its next capacity more accurately by looking at its historical performance (Agile practice guide, page 64).
Incorrect
Velocity is the sum of the story point sizes for the features actually completed in this iteration. Velocity allows the team to plan its next capacity more accurately by looking at its historical performance (Agile practice guide, page 64).
-
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
During a retrospective meeting, two team members disagree about their involvement in a recent work incident, accusing each other of dodging responsibility. To avoid such an issue in the future, the project manager decides to create a RACI matrix. RACI is an acronym for:
Correct
RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Inform. The RACI chart or matrix is an example of the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), which shows the relationship between activities and team members as it defines team members’ roles and responsibilities. It’s an efficient tool to make sure everyone is on the same page and understands what they are supposed to do.
Incorrect
RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Inform. The RACI chart or matrix is an example of the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), which shows the relationship between activities and team members as it defines team members’ roles and responsibilities. It’s an efficient tool to make sure everyone is on the same page and understands what they are supposed to do.
-
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
Establishing a change control system is crucial for a project’s success. The coordination of all changes across the whole project is part of change control. When should integrated change control be performed?
Correct
Integrated change control should be performed throughout the whole project, from start to finish. Integrated change control is the process of reviewing all change requests, approving or rejecting changes, and managing implemented changes. Therefore, it should not be limited to a specific process group or project phase.
Incorrect
Integrated change control should be performed throughout the whole project, from start to finish. Integrated change control is the process of reviewing all change requests, approving or rejecting changes, and managing implemented changes. Therefore, it should not be limited to a specific process group or project phase.
-
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
An organization puts too much emphasis on continuous improvement. In which of the following meetings can the organization teams discuss why things went wrong and what could be improved? (Select two)
Correct
Lessons learned are known as retrospectives (PMBOK 7th edition, page 71). This meeting is used to check what went wrong and what could be improved.
Option C: A status meeting is held to review the actual status as well as risks. Status meetings could be eventually followed by preventive or corrective actions, change requests, or lessons learned meetings.
Option D: Review meeting is held to check or demonstrate deliverables.
Incorrect
Lessons learned are known as retrospectives (PMBOK 7th edition, page 71). This meeting is used to check what went wrong and what could be improved.
Option C: A status meeting is held to review the actual status as well as risks. Status meetings could be eventually followed by preventive or corrective actions, change requests, or lessons learned meetings.
Option D: Review meeting is held to check or demonstrate deliverables.
-
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
When a dispute arose between two important stakeholders, the project manager intervened and successfully handled it, preventing further escalation. Where should the project manager take note of the arising issue?
Correct
The issue log is the right document to note all issues and the way they were resolved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 185).
Incorrect
The issue log is the right document to note all issues and the way they were resolved (PMBOK 7th edition, page 185).
-
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
A project manager is trying to control the costs of the project they are working on. Thus, the project manager decides to calculate the _______________ in order to define the value of the completed work, based on its pre-approved assigned budget.
Correct
Earned Value (EV) refers to the value of completed work, based on the approved budget assigned to that work.
Option C: Schedule Variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Planned Value (PV).
Option D: Cost Variance (CV) is the amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Actual Cost (AC).
Incorrect
Earned Value (EV) refers to the value of completed work, based on the approved budget assigned to that work.
Option C: Schedule Variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Planned Value (PV).
Option D: Cost Variance (CV) is the amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the Actual Cost (AC).
-
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
Which is the best communication method to maintain and improve relationships with stakeholders?
Correct
Interactive communication is the most effective communication method to maintain and improve relationships with stakeholders. Interactive communication is a real-time, dynamic, two-way flow of information.
Incorrect
Interactive communication is the most effective communication method to maintain and improve relationships with stakeholders. Interactive communication is a real-time, dynamic, two-way flow of information.
-
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
A project team developed a detailed plan to update the operating system of all of the company’s computers. Later on, the project team discovers that not every computer supports the new version of the operating system. Which of the following statements best describes this scenario?
Correct
The project team made the assumption that all of the company’s computers are compatible with the new operating system. Consequently, they planned the project based on this belief. But later on, they found out that their assumption is untrue.
Incorrect
The project team made the assumption that all of the company’s computers are compatible with the new operating system. Consequently, they planned the project based on this belief. But later on, they found out that their assumption is untrue.
-
Question 109 of 150
109. Question
Which of the following regularly held meetings will be dedicated to tracking the project’s overall progress?
Correct
The status meeting is a scheduled meeting that is held on a regular basis to monitor the project’s progress.
Incorrect
The status meeting is a scheduled meeting that is held on a regular basis to monitor the project’s progress.
-
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
A project manager joins a company, which has recently gone through major organizational changes. The new project manager is very concerned about the team’s lack of motivation and closely monitors when they arrive and leave work. What type of management style does the new project manager exhibit?
Correct
Douglas McGregor defined two models of worker behavior: Theory X and Theory Y. The new manager exhibits the traits of Theory X managers, who believe that the majority of people dislike work, lack motivation, and are in constant need of supervision. Theory X managers adopt an authoritarian style to make their teams work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 160).
Incorrect
Douglas McGregor defined two models of worker behavior: Theory X and Theory Y. The new manager exhibits the traits of Theory X managers, who believe that the majority of people dislike work, lack motivation, and are in constant need of supervision. Theory X managers adopt an authoritarian style to make their teams work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 160).
-
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
Which of the following meetings is process-oriented?
Correct
Sprint Retrospective is a process-oriented meeting that is held at the end of each iteration. Its purpose is to explicitly reflect on the most significant events that have occurred during the iteration in order to make decisions on how to improve processes during the next iteration.
Options B & C: Sprint review or demonstration, on the other hand, is a product-oriented meeting.
Incorrect
Sprint Retrospective is a process-oriented meeting that is held at the end of each iteration. Its purpose is to explicitly reflect on the most significant events that have occurred during the iteration in order to make decisions on how to improve processes during the next iteration.
Options B & C: Sprint review or demonstration, on the other hand, is a product-oriented meeting.
-
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
When conducting a feasibility analysis for a project, various factors are evaluated to determine the project’s viability. Which of the following variables are typically examined during this analysis? (Select three)
Correct
When conducting a feasibility analysis for a project, several key factors are typically evaluated to determine its viability. These include:
Option A: Operational feasibility, which assesses the organization’s readiness for change and whether the change can be sustained post-implementation.
Option C: Cost-effectiveness feasibility, which provides a high-level estimate of the costs and anticipated benefits of the project. This estimate offers an initial overview rather than a detailed cost-benefit analysis.
Option E: Resources availability are considered constraints that restrict the project viability, i.e., checking whether technical skills are available and if they can be acquired affordably.
These variables among others help ensure a comprehensive evaluation of a project’s potential success (PMI guide to business analysis, page 86).
Option B: The feasibility study estimates the overall project cost but does not provide a detailed budget breakdown by activity or resource. This is completed during the detailed project planning phase.
Option D: The feasibility study might propose broad staffing needs but does not define specific team roles and responsibilities. This is established in the project management plan after the project is approved.
Incorrect
When conducting a feasibility analysis for a project, several key factors are typically evaluated to determine its viability. These include:
Option A: Operational feasibility, which assesses the organization’s readiness for change and whether the change can be sustained post-implementation.
Option C: Cost-effectiveness feasibility, which provides a high-level estimate of the costs and anticipated benefits of the project. This estimate offers an initial overview rather than a detailed cost-benefit analysis.
Option E: Resources availability are considered constraints that restrict the project viability, i.e., checking whether technical skills are available and if they can be acquired affordably.
These variables among others help ensure a comprehensive evaluation of a project’s potential success (PMI guide to business analysis, page 86).
Option B: The feasibility study estimates the overall project cost but does not provide a detailed budget breakdown by activity or resource. This is completed during the detailed project planning phase.
Option D: The feasibility study might propose broad staffing needs but does not define specific team roles and responsibilities. This is established in the project management plan after the project is approved.
-
Question 113 of 150
113. Question
A company is moving from predictive approach to adaptive approach, what does the work breakdown structure represent in an adaptive environment?
Correct
Product backlog is a prioritized list of user-centric requirements or features to be developed, similar to the WBS in that it outlines the work needed.
Option A: Sprint backlog is a list of tasks selected from the Product Backlog for a specific sprint in Scrum. It represents a subset of work for short-term focus rather than the entire project scope.
Option D: Iteration plan is the plan for a specific iteration or sprint, focusing on the tasks and goals for that iteration rather than the entire project scope.
Incorrect
Product backlog is a prioritized list of user-centric requirements or features to be developed, similar to the WBS in that it outlines the work needed.
Option A: Sprint backlog is a list of tasks selected from the Product Backlog for a specific sprint in Scrum. It represents a subset of work for short-term focus rather than the entire project scope.
Option D: Iteration plan is the plan for a specific iteration or sprint, focusing on the tasks and goals for that iteration rather than the entire project scope.
-
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
A vendor offers a one-time price for their service, but there is no certainty about the future continuity of their business. Which project management methodology is best suited for this situation?
Correct
Adaptive methodologies, such as Agile, are designed to accommodate changes and uncertainties by allowing for iterative and incremental development. This flexibility helps manage risks and ensures the project can still progress even if the vendor’s situation changes.
Incorrect
Adaptive methodologies, such as Agile, are designed to accommodate changes and uncertainties by allowing for iterative and incremental development. This flexibility helps manage risks and ensures the project can still progress even if the vendor’s situation changes.
-
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
What should the project manager check to learn more about the product’s quality requirements necessary for establishing quality metrics?
Correct
Requirements documents capture and manage all product requirements and relevant information, serving as a comprehensive record for product development and management.
Incorrect
Requirements documents capture and manage all product requirements and relevant information, serving as a comprehensive record for product development and management.
-
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
When enabling the organization transition, what artifacts should be elaborated? (Select three)
Correct
The transition approach includes a readiness assessment plan, transition strategy, and transition plan (Business Analysis For Practitioners, page 82).
Readiness Assessment Plan: This plan evaluates the organization’s preparedness for transitioning to a new state by assessing its capability and willingness. It typically includes a readiness checklist and answers key questions such as:
What aspects of organizational readiness will be measured?
How will readiness be assessed?
What are the roles and responsibilities involved in readiness assessment?
Transition Plan: This document outlines the tasks needed to achieve a successful transition, including their deadlines, required resources, and the sequence of activities. It ensures that all necessary steps are completed in an organized manner.
Transition Strategy: A well-defined transition strategy is crucial for a successful transition. It includes various approaches like:
Massive, one-time cutover
Segmented cutover
Timeboxed coexistence
Permanent coexistence
Options B & E: Transition matrix and Transition impact analysis are made-up terms.
Incorrect
The transition approach includes a readiness assessment plan, transition strategy, and transition plan (Business Analysis For Practitioners, page 82).
Readiness Assessment Plan: This plan evaluates the organization’s preparedness for transitioning to a new state by assessing its capability and willingness. It typically includes a readiness checklist and answers key questions such as:
What aspects of organizational readiness will be measured?
How will readiness be assessed?
What are the roles and responsibilities involved in readiness assessment?
Transition Plan: This document outlines the tasks needed to achieve a successful transition, including their deadlines, required resources, and the sequence of activities. It ensures that all necessary steps are completed in an organized manner.
Transition Strategy: A well-defined transition strategy is crucial for a successful transition. It includes various approaches like:
Massive, one-time cutover
Segmented cutover
Timeboxed coexistence
Permanent coexistence
Options B & E: Transition matrix and Transition impact analysis are made-up terms.
-
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
While leading the construction of New York’s new bridge, the project manager was informed by one of the subject matter experts that, next July, all of the bridge construction work will need to stop taking into consideration the past history of river flooding due to hurricane season. Thus, the project manager agrees with the expert and decides to stop work during that month. This decision is considered as:
Correct
The project manager’s decision to stop construction work during July means that they’re trying to avoid the risk rather than accept it. The project manager made the safe decision to stop all construction work during hurricane season to avoid the risk of financial loss or putting the project staff in danger. This risk response is suitable for threats of high priority, high probability of occurrence, and a considerable negative impact.
Option C: The decision can not be to mitigate because mitigation implies that the project manager would attempt to reduce the threat’s probability of occurrence and/or impact, which can’t be done since they have no control over river floods, nor did they take any prior action to mitigate its damage if it does occur (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Incorrect
The project manager’s decision to stop construction work during July means that they’re trying to avoid the risk rather than accept it. The project manager made the safe decision to stop all construction work during hurricane season to avoid the risk of financial loss or putting the project staff in danger. This risk response is suitable for threats of high priority, high probability of occurrence, and a considerable negative impact.
Option C: The decision can not be to mitigate because mitigation implies that the project manager would attempt to reduce the threat’s probability of occurrence and/or impact, which can’t be done since they have no control over river floods, nor did they take any prior action to mitigate its damage if it does occur (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
-
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
A project manager has been assigned to a project that consists of constructing a bridge in their city. Missing the deadline for the project completion would make the company pay a fine for each additional day of delay. Which of the following does this example best illustrate?
Correct
The situation describes a schedule constraint: the project needs to be completed within deadlines or else the company will be obliged to pay a daily fine.
Incorrect
The situation describes a schedule constraint: the project needs to be completed within deadlines or else the company will be obliged to pay a daily fine.
-
Question 119 of 150
119. Question
A project manager is assigned to a construction project. During the last planning session, the project team finished decomposing the project deliverables. Which of the following documents was produced during this meeting?
Correct
The process of breaking down project deliverables means the creation of the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
Incorrect
The process of breaking down project deliverables means the creation of the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
-
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
Which of the following elicitation techniques are intended to reach a large number of stakeholders (select two)?
Correct
Focus groups gather prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts (SMEs) to discuss their expectations and attitudes toward a proposed solution. They offer valuable feedback directly from customers and end users, providing insights into their perspectives and needs. A survey is a structured set of questions aimed at efficiently gathering information from a large group of respondents.
Option B: Document analysis is an elicitation technique that involves reviewing and examining existing documentation to extract and identify information about the product. When using this technique, it’s important to assess the accuracy and relevance of the information, as outdated or current documents might reflect constraints that no longer apply.
Incorrect
Focus groups gather prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts (SMEs) to discuss their expectations and attitudes toward a proposed solution. They offer valuable feedback directly from customers and end users, providing insights into their perspectives and needs. A survey is a structured set of questions aimed at efficiently gathering information from a large group of respondents.
Option B: Document analysis is an elicitation technique that involves reviewing and examining existing documentation to extract and identify information about the product. When using this technique, it’s important to assess the accuracy and relevance of the information, as outdated or current documents might reflect constraints that no longer apply.
-
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
A business analyst has just completed the requirements elicitation, what should the business analyst do next?
Correct
After elicitation, a business analyst should confirm the gathered elicitation results with stakeholders, ensuring they accurately reflect stakeholder needs and expectations.
Options A, B, D: After confirming elicitation results, requirements will be verified, validated, then selected and approved (PMI guide to business analysis, page 24).
Incorrect
After elicitation, a business analyst should confirm the gathered elicitation results with stakeholders, ensuring they accurately reflect stakeholder needs and expectations.
Options A, B, D: After confirming elicitation results, requirements will be verified, validated, then selected and approved (PMI guide to business analysis, page 24).
-
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
During the project charter development phase, the project manager discovers a gap in the business case; some key regulatory requirements were missing. Non-compliance with these regulations could result in legal issues. Complying with these regulations, on the other hand, could result in drastic scope changes and budget overruns. What should the project manager do?
Correct
The project manager should immediately inform the project sponsor of their findings. The PMI’s Code of Ethics requires project managers to comply with all laws and regulations. Concealing such information can lead the organization to face legal issues. In the case of a predictive project, change requests can be only issued after setting the project baseline. In the described scenario, the project is neither authorized nor baselined since it’s still in the project charter development phase.
Incorrect
The project manager should immediately inform the project sponsor of their findings. The PMI’s Code of Ethics requires project managers to comply with all laws and regulations. Concealing such information can lead the organization to face legal issues. In the case of a predictive project, change requests can be only issued after setting the project baseline. In the described scenario, the project is neither authorized nor baselined since it’s still in the project charter development phase.
-
Question 123 of 150
123. Question
A project team is assessing which agile methodology to use, a team member suggested working with Feature Driven Development approach (FDD). What are the FDD activities? (Select three)
Correct
Developing an overall model involves creating a high-level model of the system to guide the development process and ensure that all stakeholders have a common understanding of the system architecture. Building a feature list involves identifying and listing all the features to be developed. Each feature represents a small, valuable piece of functionality from the user’s perspective. Each feature is designed, built, and tested in its own iteration, ensuring that the development process is manageable and structured.
Option B: Visualizing and limiting work in progress is a practice associated with Kanban, focusing on managing workflow and work-in-progress limits.
Option E: While cadence (regular, predictable intervals) is important in many Agile methodologies, it is more closely associated with Scrum, where sprints or iterations have a consistent duration.
Incorrect
Developing an overall model involves creating a high-level model of the system to guide the development process and ensure that all stakeholders have a common understanding of the system architecture. Building a feature list involves identifying and listing all the features to be developed. Each feature represents a small, valuable piece of functionality from the user’s perspective. Each feature is designed, built, and tested in its own iteration, ensuring that the development process is manageable and structured.
Option B: Visualizing and limiting work in progress is a practice associated with Kanban, focusing on managing workflow and work-in-progress limits.
Option E: While cadence (regular, predictable intervals) is important in many Agile methodologies, it is more closely associated with Scrum, where sprints or iterations have a consistent duration.
-
Question 124 of 150
124. Question
A project manager managing a national book fair identified some low-impact risks early in the planning phase. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
Passive risk acceptance is an appropriate approach for low-impact risks. No proactive action is needed for passive acceptance other than periodically reviewing the threat to ensure that it is not significantly changing. On the other hand, active risk acceptance entails developing a detailed risk response or a contingency plan that would be implemented if the event occurred (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Incorrect
Passive risk acceptance is an appropriate approach for low-impact risks. No proactive action is needed for passive acceptance other than periodically reviewing the threat to ensure that it is not significantly changing. On the other hand, active risk acceptance entails developing a detailed risk response or a contingency plan that would be implemented if the event occurred (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
-
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
Maria is supervising three projects within her organization: two are of a similar type, while the third is entirely different. What is Maria’s role in the organization?
Correct
A portfolio manager coordinates and manages a group of related or non-related projects and programs.
Incorrect
A portfolio manager coordinates and manages a group of related or non-related projects and programs.
-
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
Which of the following is an example of an information radiator?
Correct
Information radiators, such as the Kanban board, are a visible display of up-to-date information concerning the team’s work status.
Incorrect
Information radiators, such as the Kanban board, are a visible display of up-to-date information concerning the team’s work status.
-
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
Since leadership is crucial for project success, a project manager joins a training program to learn how to become a good leader. Which of the following activities should the project manager learn to apply in order to become the leader they aspire to be?
Correct
Leadership skills involve the ability to guide, motivate, and direct a team. This skill set may also include negotiation, assertiveness, communication, critical thinking, problem-solving, and interpersonal skills (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 23-25).
Options B, C, D: Improving the project’s performance, learning more about the specific domain of the project, and obtaining a PMP certification can make the project manager a better manager rather than a better leader.
Incorrect
Leadership skills involve the ability to guide, motivate, and direct a team. This skill set may also include negotiation, assertiveness, communication, critical thinking, problem-solving, and interpersonal skills (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 23-25).
Options B, C, D: Improving the project’s performance, learning more about the specific domain of the project, and obtaining a PMP certification can make the project manager a better manager rather than a better leader.
-
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
A project manager has been requested to present the roles and responsibilities of their team members during the next meeting with the senior management. Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting?
Correct
RACI charts are a type of RAM chart, which show the project resources assigned to each work package and illustrate the connections between work packages or activities, and project team members. RACI stands for the different responsibility types: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI chart is used to ensure the clear assignment of roles and responsibilities within the team.
Incorrect
RACI charts are a type of RAM chart, which show the project resources assigned to each work package and illustrate the connections between work packages or activities, and project team members. RACI stands for the different responsibility types: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI chart is used to ensure the clear assignment of roles and responsibilities within the team.
-
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
__ is the float of activities on the critical path.
Correct
On a critical path, the float of activities is zero. Float, often known as slack, is how long an activity can be delayed without causing the whole project to be delayed.
Incorrect
On a critical path, the float of activities is zero. Float, often known as slack, is how long an activity can be delayed without causing the whole project to be delayed.
-
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
What is the primary purpose of a Business Requirements Document (BRD)?
Correct
A Business Requirements Document (BRD) focuses on capturing the business requirements, objectives, and the reasons behind the project. (Business analysis for practitioners, page 73)
Options A & B & D: The Business Requirements Document (BRD) does not detail technical specifications, budget, timeline, or a work breakdown structure.
Incorrect
A Business Requirements Document (BRD) focuses on capturing the business requirements, objectives, and the reasons behind the project. (Business analysis for practitioners, page 73)
Options A & B & D: The Business Requirements Document (BRD) does not detail technical specifications, budget, timeline, or a work breakdown structure.
-
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
A business analyst is facilitating the development of the product roadmap. What tools and techniques will the business analyst use? (Select two)
Correct
Developing a product roadmap involves creating a high-level plan that outlines the key features of a product that are scheduled for delivery over multiple iterations/releases. Product visioning is a technique that facilitates the development of the roadmap as it establishes the overall direction. Story mapping is another technique used to organize user stories based on their business value and the typical order in which users interact with them. This helps teams achieve a shared understanding of what needs to be built and the sequence in which it should be developed (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 95).
Options B, D, E: Interviews, Market analysis, and Competitive analysis are not techniques used for the facilitation of the product roadmap.
Incorrect
Developing a product roadmap involves creating a high-level plan that outlines the key features of a product that are scheduled for delivery over multiple iterations/releases. Product visioning is a technique that facilitates the development of the roadmap as it establishes the overall direction. Story mapping is another technique used to organize user stories based on their business value and the typical order in which users interact with them. This helps teams achieve a shared understanding of what needs to be built and the sequence in which it should be developed (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 95).
Options B, D, E: Interviews, Market analysis, and Competitive analysis are not techniques used for the facilitation of the product roadmap.
-
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
A project manager is leading a team of 6 members in an open-space work environment. While working on an offer, the potential client called to request a cost estimate. The project manager informed the client that it was around $600,000. However, a team member immediately corrected the project manager, saying “It’s actually around $700,000”. The project manager didn’t realize that the team member was overhearing the discussion. What kind of communication is being used here?
Correct
Osmotic communication is when team members are in the same room and one person asks a question, others in the room can either contribute to the discussion or continue working (PMBOK 7th edition, page 243).
Incorrect
Osmotic communication is when team members are in the same room and one person asks a question, others in the room can either contribute to the discussion or continue working (PMBOK 7th edition, page 243).
-
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A project manager is assigned to a university complex project that consists of designing and producing 200 wayfinding and directional signs. These signs will be placed and installed near doors, exits, offices, elevators, etc. by another company. After getting the client’s approval that the project scope is met, the project manager delivers the signs to the installation company. The latter asks the project manager to help them with the signs’ installation. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Since they completed their project, which clearly consists of only designing, producing, and delivering the sign, and after getting the client’s official approval of the project’s deliverables, the project manager’s mission is done. They’re not part of the signs installation process therefore no further steps are required.
Option A: The signs production project is completed therefore submitting a change request doesn’t make sense.
Option C: A company is already assigned to install the signs so there is no need to create a new project charter.
Incorrect
Since they completed their project, which clearly consists of only designing, producing, and delivering the sign, and after getting the client’s official approval of the project’s deliverables, the project manager’s mission is done. They’re not part of the signs installation process therefore no further steps are required.
Option A: The signs production project is completed therefore submitting a change request doesn’t make sense.
Option C: A company is already assigned to install the signs so there is no need to create a new project charter.
-
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
One month into execution, a project’s cost variance reached $0.90. What is the project’s status?
Correct
The cost variance is the difference between the earned value (EV), i.e., the budgeted cost of work performed, and actual costs (AC).
CV = EV – AC
If the variance is negative, the project is over budget and if the variance is positive, it is under budget. In the question, the cost variance is barely above 0, so the project is under budget. Since the variance is very close to 0 (90 cents), we can also consider the project to be on budget, but this was not included as an option. Cost variance helps to determine the project’s current status, but it cannot determine or predict if the project will end up costing less or more than anticipated. For instance, when the CV is negative, the project manager could take preventive or corrective actions in order to steer the project back on track within the defined budget.
Incorrect
The cost variance is the difference between the earned value (EV), i.e., the budgeted cost of work performed, and actual costs (AC).
CV = EV – AC
If the variance is negative, the project is over budget and if the variance is positive, it is under budget. In the question, the cost variance is barely above 0, so the project is under budget. Since the variance is very close to 0 (90 cents), we can also consider the project to be on budget, but this was not included as an option. Cost variance helps to determine the project’s current status, but it cannot determine or predict if the project will end up costing less or more than anticipated. For instance, when the CV is negative, the project manager could take preventive or corrective actions in order to steer the project back on track within the defined budget.
-
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding the project management plan?
Correct
A project management plan is a formal document that defines how a project is going to be carried out (PMBOK 7th edition, page 186). The project plan is created during the planning phase of the project life cycle, and it must be approved by stakeholders before the project can move on to execution.
Option A: The project charter is a document that is meant to identify and authorize the Project Manager to start the project.
Option D: The project management plan is created as part of the planning process group.
Incorrect
A project management plan is a formal document that defines how a project is going to be carried out (PMBOK 7th edition, page 186). The project plan is created during the planning phase of the project life cycle, and it must be approved by stakeholders before the project can move on to execution.
Option A: The project charter is a document that is meant to identify and authorize the Project Manager to start the project.
Option D: The project management plan is created as part of the planning process group.
-
Question 136 of 150
136. Question
An organization has decided to create an innovative system for product quality control. The project manager assigned to this project chose an Agile approach. Why did the project manager make this choice?
Correct
Since it’s based on short development iterations, Agile approaches allow for early and frequent feedback by delivering a working piece of the product at the end of each iteration to the customer. Since traditional projects can only obtain customer feedback at the end, it is often too late to incorporate the feedback or fix any issues at that stage, unlike Agile projects where new changes are welcomed and integrated into the product development process.
Incorrect
Since it’s based on short development iterations, Agile approaches allow for early and frequent feedback by delivering a working piece of the product at the end of each iteration to the customer. Since traditional projects can only obtain customer feedback at the end, it is often too late to incorporate the feedback or fix any issues at that stage, unlike Agile projects where new changes are welcomed and integrated into the product development process.
-
Question 137 of 150
137. Question
Which of the following best describes the Definition of Done (DoD)?
Correct
The DoD is a set of criteria that must be met for a product or feature to be considered complete, ensuring it meets the agreed-upon standards for quality and functionality.
Incorrect
The DoD is a set of criteria that must be met for a product or feature to be considered complete, ensuring it meets the agreed-upon standards for quality and functionality.
-
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
While examining their project progress, a project manager finds out that the schedule variance is $0.00. Which of the following statements is true about this project?
Correct
Schedule variance (SV) measures whether your project is on track by calculating its actual progress against expected progress to determine how ahead of or behind schedule the project work is. SV equals the difference between your project’s earned value and planned value: SV = EV – PV. Therefore, an SV of $0.00 means that the project’s EV equals its PV.
Incorrect
Schedule variance (SV) measures whether your project is on track by calculating its actual progress against expected progress to determine how ahead of or behind schedule the project work is. SV equals the difference between your project’s earned value and planned value: SV = EV – PV. Therefore, an SV of $0.00 means that the project’s EV equals its PV.
-
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
A project manager is assigned to a network upgrade project. After the project scope approval, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) can now be created. Who is in charge of creating the WBS?
Correct
The project team is responsible for carrying out the process of creating the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). Involving all stakeholders in the creation of the WBS can be both unrealistic and impractical since certain projects can include hundreds and even thousands of stakeholders. Plus, even if they were included, they would most likely lack the necessary skills to contribute to the creation of the WBS.
Option B: The project manager is partially involved in the process and not responsible for performing it: they can only facilitate the WBS creation and provide the team with the needed help and direction.
Incorrect
The project team is responsible for carrying out the process of creating the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). Involving all stakeholders in the creation of the WBS can be both unrealistic and impractical since certain projects can include hundreds and even thousands of stakeholders. Plus, even if they were included, they would most likely lack the necessary skills to contribute to the creation of the WBS.
Option B: The project manager is partially involved in the process and not responsible for performing it: they can only facilitate the WBS creation and provide the team with the needed help and direction.
-
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
This is a project manager’s first time leading an agile project. Knowing that they opted for the Scrum framework, which of the following describes the project team?
Correct
The typical size of an agile team ranges from three to nine members.
Options B, D: Agile teams should be multidisciplinary (not necessarily have a technical background) and self-organizing (not dependent on the scrum master).
Option C: Successful agile teams are made up of generalizing specialists/T-shaped members who have deep knowledge in one area and a broad ability in other areas. I-shaped, on the other hand, refers to a person with a profound knowledge of one area but has no interest or skill in other areas (Agile Practice Guide, page 42).
Incorrect
The typical size of an agile team ranges from three to nine members.
Options B, D: Agile teams should be multidisciplinary (not necessarily have a technical background) and self-organizing (not dependent on the scrum master).
Option C: Successful agile teams are made up of generalizing specialists/T-shaped members who have deep knowledge in one area and a broad ability in other areas. I-shaped, on the other hand, refers to a person with a profound knowledge of one area but has no interest or skill in other areas (Agile Practice Guide, page 42).
-
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
What is the primary purpose of Kano analysis?
Correct
Kano analysis is designed to model and analyze product features from the customer’s perspective. It helps product teams understand how different features are valued by customers, which aids in prioritizing them. During Kano analysis, features are categorized and plotted on a grid to determine their importance and impact on customer satisfaction. This method allows teams to focus on features that will have the most significant effect on customer satisfaction and prioritize development accordingly (PMI guide to business analysis, page 79).
Incorrect
Kano analysis is designed to model and analyze product features from the customer’s perspective. It helps product teams understand how different features are valued by customers, which aids in prioritizing them. During Kano analysis, features are categorized and plotted on a grid to determine their importance and impact on customer satisfaction. This method allows teams to focus on features that will have the most significant effect on customer satisfaction and prioritize development accordingly (PMI guide to business analysis, page 79).
-
Question 142 of 150
142. Question
A project manager is acquiring a team for a new project. A candidate for a particular position assures the project manager that he would be a great asset to the project team. The candidate adds that in case the project manager hires him, he would give the latter any project bonus he might receive. What should the project manager do?
Correct
The best thing to do in this situation is to reject the candidate’s job application. Apart from being unethical, offering or accepting a bribe is a huge violation of the PMI Code of Ethics. Even if the candidate was joking, this type of joke is inappropriate and an indication of his lack of professionalism. The project manager should avoid the fuss of ending the job interview straightaway and just reject the application later on.
Incorrect
The best thing to do in this situation is to reject the candidate’s job application. Apart from being unethical, offering or accepting a bribe is a huge violation of the PMI Code of Ethics. Even if the candidate was joking, this type of joke is inappropriate and an indication of his lack of professionalism. The project manager should avoid the fuss of ending the job interview straightaway and just reject the application later on.
-
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
Which of the following statements about Risk Management is the most accurate?
Correct
All identified risks should be added to the risk register. The risk register includes identified project risks, risk owners, agreed-upon risk responses, and specific implementation actions, as well as other details including control actions for assessing the effectiveness of response plans, signs of risk, residual and secondary risks, and a watch list of low-priority risks. Risk responses include: Avoid, Escalate, Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Options C, D: A risk that cannot be mitigated or avoided could be escalated, transferred, or accepted.
Incorrect
All identified risks should be added to the risk register. The risk register includes identified project risks, risk owners, agreed-upon risk responses, and specific implementation actions, as well as other details including control actions for assessing the effectiveness of response plans, signs of risk, residual and secondary risks, and a watch list of low-priority risks. Risk responses include: Avoid, Escalate, Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Options C, D: A risk that cannot be mitigated or avoided could be escalated, transferred, or accepted.
-
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
A project manager was recently hired by an organization. In their previous position, the project manager used to have wide-ranging authority. Wondering if things will be different for them in the new organization, the project manager asked their mentor what type of organization it is. Which of the following options is not an organizational structure type?
Correct
Technical is not an organizational structure. There are multiple types of organizational structures including functional or centralized, matrix, and projectized or project-oriented.
Incorrect
Technical is not an organizational structure. There are multiple types of organizational structures including functional or centralized, matrix, and projectized or project-oriented.
-
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
A Product Owner at a tech company developing a new project management tool. The Product Owner is currently in the process of creating the product roadmap with the help of the business analyst, which will guide the development team and stakeholders on the product’s direction over the next few quarters. Which of the following components should the product owner include in the product roadmap? (select three)
Correct
Product vision is the description of the product’s long term objectives. The product roadmap should include the identification of the key features that will be developed for the product. Typically the features are grouped by release or a development approach. The timeline provides a detailed schedule for the product’s development, highlighting key milestones and deadlines for feature releases.
Incorrect
Product vision is the description of the product’s long term objectives. The product roadmap should include the identification of the key features that will be developed for the product. Typically the features are grouped by release or a development approach. The timeline provides a detailed schedule for the product’s development, highlighting key milestones and deadlines for feature releases.
-
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
The table below presents a number of techniques used for collecting project requirements. What techniques correspond to A, B, C, and D respectively?
Correct
A. Focus groups involve an interactive group discussion facilitated by a moderator
B. Brainstorming is a group discussion to quickly generate a large number of ideas
C: Nominal group is a group discussion to produce ideas and prioritize them through voting
D: Benchmarking involves a comparison of ideas, products, processes, practices, etc. (PMI process groups guide page 83).
Incorrect
A. Focus groups involve an interactive group discussion facilitated by a moderator
B. Brainstorming is a group discussion to quickly generate a large number of ideas
C: Nominal group is a group discussion to produce ideas and prioritize them through voting
D: Benchmarking involves a comparison of ideas, products, processes, practices, etc. (PMI process groups guide page 83).
-
Question 147 of 150
147. Question
A project manager signs a contract worth millions of dollars to manage a 4-month international sports event. During the planning phase, the project manager discovers a serious threat to the project; one of their contractors might declare bankruptcy. If that happens, the project will be delayed for another two months. After giving it some thought, the project manager decides to contact another contractor who can supply the necessary materials. This is an example of:
Correct
The described situation depicts Risk Mitigation. The project manager did not cancel the contract because the contractor might go bankrupt. They did not breach the contract either by getting in touch with another supplier. They contacted a different vendor in order to keep their options open and have other alternatives in case the risk occurs. By doing this, the possibility of the project’s delay is reduced.
Incorrect
The described situation depicts Risk Mitigation. The project manager did not cancel the contract because the contractor might go bankrupt. They did not breach the contract either by getting in touch with another supplier. They contacted a different vendor in order to keep their options open and have other alternatives in case the risk occurs. By doing this, the possibility of the project’s delay is reduced.
-
Question 148 of 150
148. Question
A business analyst is conducting a focus group to obtain direct feedback from customers and end users. Who are the primary participants in the focus groups?
Correct
Subject matter experts (SMEs) are a valuable source for product-related information, providing insights and expectations of the future state. Subject matter experts (SMEs) can be long-time members of the product development team
Incorrect
Subject matter experts (SMEs) are a valuable source for product-related information, providing insights and expectations of the future state. Subject matter experts (SMEs) can be long-time members of the product development team
-
Question 149 of 150
149. Question
Which of the following options are conflict-resolution techniques? (Select three)
Correct
Conflict resolution techniques include withdrawal/avoiding, smoothing/accommodating, compromising, forcing, collaborating, and problem-solving/confronting (PMBOK 7th edition, page 169).
Option C: Adjourning is one of the five stages of team development according to the Tuckman ladder.
Incorrect
Conflict resolution techniques include withdrawal/avoiding, smoothing/accommodating, compromising, forcing, collaborating, and problem-solving/confronting (PMBOK 7th edition, page 169).
Option C: Adjourning is one of the five stages of team development according to the Tuckman ladder.
-
Question 150 of 150
150. Question
In adaptive approach, acceptance criteria is used for:
Correct
Acceptance criteria specify the conditions that a product or feature must meet to be considered complete and acceptable. They are integral to writing user stories in an adaptive or Agile approach, as they provide clear and testable requirements that guide the development process and ensure that user stories are correctly implemented (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 227).
Incorrect
Acceptance criteria specify the conditions that a product or feature must meet to be considered complete and acceptable. They are integral to writing user stories in an adaptive or Agile approach, as they provide clear and testable requirements that guide the development process and ensure that user stories are correctly implemented (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 227).
Practice Questions Based on New Syllabus (2025)
Staying aligned with the 2025 exam structure is crucial for maximizing your preparation efforts and ensuring success on the first try. So, we have come up with the CAPM Mock Test series fully aligned with the latest syllabus and exam format.
The Mock Exam practice questions are fully aligned with the new CAPM exam syllabus 2025 to ensure you are studying the latest and relevant material. These questions are crafted based on the latest exam objectives, including Agile and predictive approaches, business environment, and project management principles.
By practicing these questions, you will gain a clear understanding of what to expect on the exam and be better prepared to apply your knowledge in a real-world project management context. This alignment not only boosts your confidence but also significantly enhances your chances of passing the CAPM exam on the first attempt.
What are the four types of questions on the CAPM Exam?
The four types of questions on the CAPM Exam are:
- Multiple Choice: You select one or two best options from a list of answers. For example, a question might ask who approves the Project Charter, and you would choose the correct answer from the options provided.
- Hotspot: You are shown a graphic and must select the best option based on it. This involves analyzing the graphic and clicking on the correct area that answers the question.
- Enhanced Matching: You are given a series of tiles to match with their descriptions or to arrange in the correct order. This requires dragging tiles to their corresponding matches.
- Animation Videos or Comic Strips: You watch a short animated video or comic strip and then answer questions based on what you observed. This type is similar to multiple choice but uses visual storytelling.
CAPM Exam Domains
The CAPM certification exam is divided into four domains by the Project Management Institute (PMI). A domain is simply a specific knowledge area of project management that forms the basis for all test questions. The four domains of the CAPM exam include:
- Domain I: Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts
- Domain II: Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies
- Domain III: Agile Frameworks/Methodologies
- Domain IV: Business Analysis Frameworks