A full-length CAPM® exam simulation designed to mirror the actual PMI® exam format. This test includes 150 multiple-choice questions, covering all four major domains as outlined in the latest CAPM Exam Content Outline. Whether you’re close to your exam date or just starting your prep, this test gives you a complete performance snapshot across all key knowledge areas.
The CAPM Mock Test 1 content is aligned with the latest CAPM Exam Content Outline, ensuring you cover all key domains. It includes questions from Project Management Fundamentals & Core Concepts (36%), Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies (17%), Agile Frameworks/Methodologies (20%), and Business Analysis (27%) — just like the real exam. Each question is carefully framed to evaluate your understanding of both theoretical knowledge and practical application.
CAPM Mock Test 1 – 150 Practice Questions
This mock test is modeled on the official CAPM exam and follows the updated 2023–2025 syllabus structure:
CAPM Mock Test 1
Quiz-summary
0 of 150 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- 101
- 102
- 103
- 104
- 105
- 106
- 107
- 108
- 109
- 110
- 111
- 112
- 113
- 114
- 115
- 116
- 117
- 118
- 119
- 120
- 121
- 122
- 123
- 124
- 125
- 126
- 127
- 128
- 129
- 130
- 131
- 132
- 133
- 134
- 135
- 136
- 137
- 138
- 139
- 140
- 141
- 142
- 143
- 144
- 145
- 146
- 147
- 148
- 149
- 150
Information
CAPM Mock Exam 1 to Simulate Final Exam.
The exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (including 15 unscored pretest questions) to be completed in 3 hours.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 150 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- CAPM 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- 101
- 102
- 103
- 104
- 105
- 106
- 107
- 108
- 109
- 110
- 111
- 112
- 113
- 114
- 115
- 116
- 117
- 118
- 119
- 120
- 121
- 122
- 123
- 124
- 125
- 126
- 127
- 128
- 129
- 130
- 131
- 132
- 133
- 134
- 135
- 136
- 137
- 138
- 139
- 140
- 141
- 142
- 143
- 144
- 145
- 146
- 147
- 148
- 149
- 150
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 150
1. Question
In an interior design project for a library, the client asks the team to increase the number of bookshelves beyond what was agreed on. Since the project is on schedule and adding additional shelves will make no difference, the project manager consents to the client’s request. This is an example of:
Correct
Scope creep (also known as “feature creep” or “requirement creep”) refers to the uncontrolled expansion of the project’s scope (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249).
Option A: The tackled situation is not considered gold plating since the client is the one who brought up the change request; it was neither the project manager nor team members who added changes without the client’s approval, as gold plating implies.
Option B: Customer obsession consists of an excessive focus on providing a better customer experience by meeting and even exceeding your client’s needs. However, customer obsession shouldn’t mean delivering beyond scope since the latter can increase the project schedule and cost, thus decreasing the success rate of the project.
Incorrect
Scope creep (also known as “feature creep” or “requirement creep”) refers to the uncontrolled expansion of the project’s scope (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249).
Option A: The tackled situation is not considered gold plating since the client is the one who brought up the change request; it was neither the project manager nor team members who added changes without the client’s approval, as gold plating implies.
Option B: Customer obsession consists of an excessive focus on providing a better customer experience by meeting and even exceeding your client’s needs. However, customer obsession shouldn’t mean delivering beyond scope since the latter can increase the project schedule and cost, thus decreasing the success rate of the project.
-
Question 2 of 150
2. Question
Which tool ensures that each solution requirement is linked to the business needs, goals, and objectives, as well as stakeholder expectations?
Correct
The requirements traceability matrix ensures that each solution requirement is valuable and within scope by linking it to business needs, goals, and project objectives. RTM verifies that solution requirements align with stakeholder expectations by tracing them back to stakeholder requirements. RTM is typically used in a predictive environment.
Incorrect
The requirements traceability matrix ensures that each solution requirement is valuable and within scope by linking it to business needs, goals, and project objectives. RTM verifies that solution requirements align with stakeholder expectations by tracing them back to stakeholder requirements. RTM is typically used in a predictive environment.
-
Question 3 of 150
3. Question
A team, with no defined roles, uses a board and cards to categorize tasks into “To do”, “Doing”, and “Done”. Without too many restrictions, team members grab a card from the “To do” list and begin to work. What agile framework is being described?
Correct
Kanban is an agile method that employs a pull-based work system where tasks are assigned only when resources are available.
Incorrect
Kanban is an agile method that employs a pull-based work system where tasks are assigned only when resources are available.
-
Question 4 of 150
4. Question
The stakeholder engagement process involves five steps. What is their logical sequencing according to the figure below?
Correct
A = Identify, B = Understand & analyze, C = Engage, D = Monitor (PMBOK 7th edition, page 10). Stakeholders’ engagement starts by identifying all parties directly or indirectly connected or involved in the project. Next, the identified stakeholders must be fully understood in terms of their beliefs, attitudes, expectations, etc. towards the project in order to be able to analyze each one’s level of power, interest, impact, etc., and prioritize them accordingly. After that, an engagement plan is created according to the findings of the previous steps, where a project manager should ensure clear and constant communication, the satisfaction of stakeholders’ requirements and expectations, and issues resolving when needed. Monitoring stakeholders is the final step in the process, and it entails monitoring any changes in their attitudes or power levels to adapt the engagement plan accordingly.
Incorrect
A = Identify, B = Understand & analyze, C = Engage, D = Monitor (PMBOK 7th edition, page 10). Stakeholders’ engagement starts by identifying all parties directly or indirectly connected or involved in the project. Next, the identified stakeholders must be fully understood in terms of their beliefs, attitudes, expectations, etc. towards the project in order to be able to analyze each one’s level of power, interest, impact, etc., and prioritize them accordingly. After that, an engagement plan is created according to the findings of the previous steps, where a project manager should ensure clear and constant communication, the satisfaction of stakeholders’ requirements and expectations, and issues resolving when needed. Monitoring stakeholders is the final step in the process, and it entails monitoring any changes in their attitudes or power levels to adapt the engagement plan accordingly.
-
Question 5 of 150
5. Question
What is the purpose of a project charter?
Correct
A project charter is used to formally authorize both the project manager to start the project, as well as document the project’s objectives and its high-level scope. It also defines the responsibilities and roles of all involved parties in the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
Incorrect
A project charter is used to formally authorize both the project manager to start the project, as well as document the project’s objectives and its high-level scope. It also defines the responsibilities and roles of all involved parties in the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
-
Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Before announcing the completion of the project execution, the project manager of a construction project reviews deliverables and performs a site walkthrough. What is the project manager performing in this scenario?
Correct
During an inspection, the project manager reviews deliverables and performs a site walkthrough if applicable.
Option B, D: The project manager here is neither validating the scope with the customer nor handing over deliverables to them.
Option C: Audits are carried out to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures (PMI – Process groups guide, page 248). In other words, audits are performed on processes while inspections are performed on products.
Incorrect
During an inspection, the project manager reviews deliverables and performs a site walkthrough if applicable.
Option B, D: The project manager here is neither validating the scope with the customer nor handing over deliverables to them.
Option C: Audits are carried out to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures (PMI – Process groups guide, page 248). In other words, audits are performed on processes while inspections are performed on products.
-
Question 7 of 150
7. Question
In a project context, guidelines and policies are classified as:
Correct
Project constraints are restrictions that limit the project in a certain way. A cost restriction, for instance, means that the project is limited by its allocated budget or resources. Other constraints include policies, standards, guidelines, etc.
Incorrect
Project constraints are restrictions that limit the project in a certain way. A cost restriction, for instance, means that the project is limited by its allocated budget or resources. Other constraints include policies, standards, guidelines, etc.
-
Question 8 of 150
8. Question
To compare the different suppliers and make the best choice, which of the following tools or techniques should the project manager use?
Correct
It’s essential for both the project manager and the project team to create selection criteria to rate and score proposals from the suppliers. In the case of a bid or quote, the price offered by the seller represents the main evaluation criterion. In other cases involving proposals, the evaluation criteria can include various aspects such as the seller’s experience, references, certifications, etc.
Option D: In this scenario, the project manager has received proposals, so a make-or-buy analysis should have been already carried out at this point.
Option C & A: An audit or a performance review should take place at a later stage to verify that all procurement processes were respected and that the purchased items conform to requirements.
Incorrect
It’s essential for both the project manager and the project team to create selection criteria to rate and score proposals from the suppliers. In the case of a bid or quote, the price offered by the seller represents the main evaluation criterion. In other cases involving proposals, the evaluation criteria can include various aspects such as the seller’s experience, references, certifications, etc.
Option D: In this scenario, the project manager has received proposals, so a make-or-buy analysis should have been already carried out at this point.
Option C & A: An audit or a performance review should take place at a later stage to verify that all procurement processes were respected and that the purchased items conform to requirements.
-
Question 9 of 150
9. Question
The following are not a business analyst roles except:
Correct
Elicit, analyze, and document stakeholders’ requirements is a core responsibility of a business analyst. They work to gather detailed requirements from stakeholders, analyze these requirements to understand their implications, and document them to ensure clarity and alignment.
Incorrect
Elicit, analyze, and document stakeholders’ requirements is a core responsibility of a business analyst. They work to gather detailed requirements from stakeholders, analyze these requirements to understand their implications, and document them to ensure clarity and alignment.
-
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
A project involves dozens of stakeholders. Most of them need high-level information and updates about the project status, while the rest need more detailed information and frequent updates. Therefore, the project manager decides to set up an action plan to respond to these different requirements. What should the project manager create?
Correct
A stakeholder engagement plan sets up strategies and actions to ensure the positive and effective involvement of all stakeholders in the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 187).
Option B: The stakeholder register lists the project stakeholders and doesn’t include any action plan.
Option A & D: The power/interest grid and stakeholder engagement assessment matrix are tools and techniques to analyze stakeholders and assess their level of engagement. Unlike the stakeholder engagement plan, these tools do not generate or comprise practical information on how to engage and monitor stakeholders such as the frequency of official meetings, recipients of status reports, communication channels, etc.
Incorrect
A stakeholder engagement plan sets up strategies and actions to ensure the positive and effective involvement of all stakeholders in the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 187).
Option B: The stakeholder register lists the project stakeholders and doesn’t include any action plan.
Option A & D: The power/interest grid and stakeholder engagement assessment matrix are tools and techniques to analyze stakeholders and assess their level of engagement. Unlike the stakeholder engagement plan, these tools do not generate or comprise practical information on how to engage and monitor stakeholders such as the frequency of official meetings, recipients of status reports, communication channels, etc.
-
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
A project manager has been assigned to a 300 ft farm fencing project. Having previously managed two similar projects in another region, the project manager knows that the materials for a chain-link fence cost $10 per foot, while labor costs range from $10 to $15 per linear foot, depending on the workers’ experience and common rates in the region. What is the best way to estimate the labor cost per linear foot?
Correct
The three-point estimating is the triangular distribution of pessimistic, optimistic, and most likely estimates. This technique is used when there is insufficient historical data or when there is only judgmental data.
Incorrect
The three-point estimating is the triangular distribution of pessimistic, optimistic, and most likely estimates. This technique is used when there is insufficient historical data or when there is only judgmental data.
-
Question 12 of 150
12. Question
A Business Analyst for a large construction project is working with the project manager to define the steps to perform stakeholder analysis. Which of the following correctly defines the steps for stakeholder analysis?
Correct
Stakeholder analysis starts with identifying and documenting the stakeholders’ contact information, knowledge, expectations of the project, and their level of influence over project decisions. Then the business analyst works with the project manager to prioritize and classify stakeholders based on their power, influence, expectations, and concerns for the project. Finally, the business analyst should plan for managing the stakeholders based on possible negative or positive scenarios in the project that may affect the stakeholder.
Option A, B, D: These options are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct ordering of steps for stakeholder analysis.
Incorrect
Stakeholder analysis starts with identifying and documenting the stakeholders’ contact information, knowledge, expectations of the project, and their level of influence over project decisions. Then the business analyst works with the project manager to prioritize and classify stakeholders based on their power, influence, expectations, and concerns for the project. Finally, the business analyst should plan for managing the stakeholders based on possible negative or positive scenarios in the project that may affect the stakeholder.
Option A, B, D: These options are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct ordering of steps for stakeholder analysis.
-
Question 13 of 150
13. Question
A project manager was assigned to a large project that has unclear requirements and deliverables. After choosing an agile approach to deal with the situation, what should the project manager do next?
Correct
The project manager should start by facilitating the identification and prioritization of evident requirements, hence helping with the elaboration of the product backlog. Next, and since the project is following an agile approach, the project manager should execute work iteratively and incrementally.
Incorrect
The project manager should start by facilitating the identification and prioritization of evident requirements, hence helping with the elaboration of the product backlog. Next, and since the project is following an agile approach, the project manager should execute work iteratively and incrementally.
-
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
A project manager who adopts a servant leadership style is onboarding a new team member. The project manager gives the team member a copy of the project charter and commits to sending them a copy of ________________, which covers team values, ground rules, and working agreements.
Correct
A team charter is a document that is developed in a group setting to clarify team direction while also establishing boundaries. It is created at the team’s forming phase in order to encourage understanding and buy-in. A team charter aligns the team with ground rules, team values, meeting guidelines, working agreements, as well as other group norms (PMBOK 7th edition, page 192).
Incorrect
A team charter is a document that is developed in a group setting to clarify team direction while also establishing boundaries. It is created at the team’s forming phase in order to encourage understanding and buy-in. A team charter aligns the team with ground rules, team values, meeting guidelines, working agreements, as well as other group norms (PMBOK 7th edition, page 192).
-
Question 15 of 150
15. Question
A project has been hampered by many quality issues, putting the project at risk. Which meeting should the project manager conduct with the team to figure out how to avoid or deal with such problems in the future?
Correct
Lessons learned meetings are collaborative retrospective sessions for discussing, documenting, and soliciting feedback about the project’s successes and missteps. These meetings are a must for the project team to learn from previous mistakes and improve future processes and projects. Lessons learned meetings should be held whenever needed, to review the way a project has been progressing, note important learnings, and set new ways for amelioration.
Incorrect
Lessons learned meetings are collaborative retrospective sessions for discussing, documenting, and soliciting feedback about the project’s successes and missteps. These meetings are a must for the project team to learn from previous mistakes and improve future processes and projects. Lessons learned meetings should be held whenever needed, to review the way a project has been progressing, note important learnings, and set new ways for amelioration.
-
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
During the project planning phase, stakeholders insisted that their conflicting requirements should all be considered and consolidated. That made it hard for the project manager to create a plan that satisfies all stakeholders. What should the project manager do to establish a common ground?
Correct
Focus groups bring together stakeholders and subject matter experts to interactively discuss and learn about their expectations and attitudes towards a proposed service, product, or result (PMBOK 7th edition, page 15).
Incorrect
Focus groups bring together stakeholders and subject matter experts to interactively discuss and learn about their expectations and attitudes towards a proposed service, product, or result (PMBOK 7th edition, page 15).
-
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
Regardless of the type of development approach that a project manager adopts for their project, their top priority should always be:
Correct
In any business, customers or sponsors have to be the highest priority when delivering a product. It’s not enough to deliver a functioning product; the product must work for the customer or the sponsor’s needs.
Incorrect
In any business, customers or sponsors have to be the highest priority when delivering a product. It’s not enough to deliver a functioning product; the product must work for the customer or the sponsor’s needs.
-
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
One year into managing a predictive project, and during the close project process, the project manager faces a key stakeholder’s refusal to sign off the deliverables due to non-compliance claims. What can the project manager do to ensure stakeholder acceptance?
Correct
Variance analysis is a technique used at the end of a project or phase in order to identify any deviation in deliverables or difference between actual and planned behaviors. This method is used to determine the cause and magnitude of the difference between baseline and actual performance, as well as retain control over the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 177 & PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 278)
Incorrect
Variance analysis is a technique used at the end of a project or phase in order to identify any deviation in deliverables or difference between actual and planned behaviors. This method is used to determine the cause and magnitude of the difference between baseline and actual performance, as well as retain control over the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 177 & PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 278)
-
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
In a projectized organization structure, after getting the client’s approval of deliverables and officially closing the project, what should be the project manager’s next step?
Correct
In projectized organizations, all activities are managed through projects. Upon completion of the project, the project manager releases the team members to move on to the next project.
Incorrect
In projectized organizations, all activities are managed through projects. Upon completion of the project, the project manager releases the team members to move on to the next project.
-
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
A project manager keeps receiving negative feedback concerning one of the project suppliers. The conflicts between the project team and the supplier’s team are getting worse recently and are starting to have a negative impact on the project. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
When you want to resolve a conflict, a face-to-face meeting is always the best first step. Hence, the project manager should meet with the manager of the supplier’s team to discuss the issue and try to find a solution.
Option A: Other communication methods, such as sending an email or having a phone call, are less effective than an in-person meeting.
Option D: If direct negotiation fails, then the project manager should proceed with Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), such as mediation or arbitration.
Incorrect
When you want to resolve a conflict, a face-to-face meeting is always the best first step. Hence, the project manager should meet with the manager of the supplier’s team to discuss the issue and try to find a solution.
Option A: Other communication methods, such as sending an email or having a phone call, are less effective than an in-person meeting.
Option D: If direct negotiation fails, then the project manager should proceed with Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), such as mediation or arbitration.
-
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
For the next release, the product owner has selected a number of user stories totaling 110 points. Given that the team’s velocity is 20 story points, what’s the estimated duration to complete this release?
Correct
A release of 110 story points takes 6 sprints to be completed by a team that has 20 story points’ velocity. Even though dividing 110 by 20 equals 5.5 sprints, the number of iterations should be an integer since the predetermined timebox of a sprint should not be changed. In Scrum, it’s possible to calculate the estimated number of sprints as long as the velocity of the team and the estimation of the workload are known. But, you need to keep in mind that this is an estimation rather than a commitment since changes could happen along the way.
Incorrect
A release of 110 story points takes 6 sprints to be completed by a team that has 20 story points’ velocity. Even though dividing 110 by 20 equals 5.5 sprints, the number of iterations should be an integer since the predetermined timebox of a sprint should not be changed. In Scrum, it’s possible to calculate the estimated number of sprints as long as the velocity of the team and the estimation of the workload are known. But, you need to keep in mind that this is an estimation rather than a commitment since changes could happen along the way.
-
Question 22 of 150
22. Question
The scope of business analysis is:
Correct
Business analysis primarily concentrates on the features and functions that define a solution, making its scope product-oriented.
Option C: Project management involves overseeing all tasks required to deliver a product or service, making its scope both product-oriented and project-oriented.
Incorrect
Business analysis primarily concentrates on the features and functions that define a solution, making its scope product-oriented.
Option C: Project management involves overseeing all tasks required to deliver a product or service, making its scope both product-oriented and project-oriented.
-
Question 23 of 150
23. Question
Which of the below statements represents the most accurate definition of backlog refinement? (Select three)
Correct
Backlog refinement (formerly referred to as backlog grooming) occurs when the product owner along with some, or all of the team members checks the backlog to make sure it contains the proper items, that these items are prioritized, and that the ones at the top are ready to be delivered (PMBOK 7th edition, page 235). This activity is carried out regularly and can be either an officially scheduled meeting or an ongoing activity.
Option A: The process of developing the initial list of product requirements represents backlog elaboration or creation.
Incorrect
Backlog refinement (formerly referred to as backlog grooming) occurs when the product owner along with some, or all of the team members checks the backlog to make sure it contains the proper items, that these items are prioritized, and that the ones at the top are ready to be delivered (PMBOK 7th edition, page 235). This activity is carried out regularly and can be either an officially scheduled meeting or an ongoing activity.
Option A: The process of developing the initial list of product requirements represents backlog elaboration or creation.
-
Question 24 of 150
24. Question
A company must select one of two projects that have the same budget, but different returns and risk levels. Which tool or technique should be used in order to make the right decision?
Correct
The decision tree analysis is used to support the identification and selection of the best course of action among several alternatives. Each of these alternative paths can have associated costs and risks, including both threats and opportunities. The decision tree reveals the expected monetary value of each branch, allowing the determination and selection of the optimal path (PMBOK 7th edition, page 175).
Incorrect
The decision tree analysis is used to support the identification and selection of the best course of action among several alternatives. Each of these alternative paths can have associated costs and risks, including both threats and opportunities. The decision tree reveals the expected monetary value of each branch, allowing the determination and selection of the optimal path (PMBOK 7th edition, page 175).
-
Question 25 of 150
25. Question
What does “cycle time” mean?
Correct
The cycle time is how long it takes for the team to complete a task. It’s measured from the time they start working on the task.
Option D: Lead time, on the other hand, starts from the moment the task is added to the board (Agile Practice Guide, page 64).
Incorrect
The cycle time is how long it takes for the team to complete a task. It’s measured from the time they start working on the task.
Option D: Lead time, on the other hand, starts from the moment the task is added to the board (Agile Practice Guide, page 64).
-
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
Which statement is true about the following chart?
Correct
At the end of the seven-day iteration, 3 story points are left undone.
Incorrect
At the end of the seven-day iteration, 3 story points are left undone.
-
Question 27 of 150
27. Question
Working with the predictive approach, which of the following is most true?
Correct
In a predictive approach, Lag is when an activity is complete and there is a delay before the subsequent activity starts (PMBOK 7th edition, page 59). For example, in order to paint a room, you need to first apply the primer coating, then you have to let it dry for two days before applying the final coat of paint. These two days of waiting for the primer coat to dry are referred to as Lag Time.
Incorrect
In a predictive approach, Lag is when an activity is complete and there is a delay before the subsequent activity starts (PMBOK 7th edition, page 59). For example, in order to paint a room, you need to first apply the primer coating, then you have to let it dry for two days before applying the final coat of paint. These two days of waiting for the primer coat to dry are referred to as Lag Time.
-
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
Before starting the project, the business analyst is classifying stakeholders according to their level of power, interest, and influence. This step is referred to as:
Correct
Since the question states that stakeholders were already identified and that the project didn’t start yet, stakeholder analysis is the right answer. Stakeholder analysis refers to the classification of all project stakeholders in order to ensure efficient engagement later on.
Option D: Stakeholder engagement takes place in the execution process group and it involves: communicating and collaborating with stakeholders to meet their expectations, addressing issues, and fostering appropriate stakeholder involvement.
Option C: Stakeholder monitoring implies assessing stakeholders’ satisfaction and whether their engagement plan is effective or it needs to be updated (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 11-12-14).
Incorrect
Since the question states that stakeholders were already identified and that the project didn’t start yet, stakeholder analysis is the right answer. Stakeholder analysis refers to the classification of all project stakeholders in order to ensure efficient engagement later on.
Option D: Stakeholder engagement takes place in the execution process group and it involves: communicating and collaborating with stakeholders to meet their expectations, addressing issues, and fostering appropriate stakeholder involvement.
Option C: Stakeholder monitoring implies assessing stakeholders’ satisfaction and whether their engagement plan is effective or it needs to be updated (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 11-12-14).
-
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
Which of the following best describes business analysis?
Correct
Business analysis involves activities that support the delivery of solutions aligned with business objectives, ensuring continuous value for the organization. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 389)
Incorrect
Business analysis involves activities that support the delivery of solutions aligned with business objectives, ensuring continuous value for the organization. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 389)
-
Question 30 of 150
30. Question
In a weak matrix organization, a project manager discovers that the assigned team lacks the necessary skills for the project. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
A project manager’s power is considerably low in a weak matrix organization. In fact, they are rather considered a coordinator or an expediter. It’s up to the functional manager to assign resources in such organizations. Therefore, the only solution to obtain the needed resources in this situation is by negotiating your requirements with the functional manager.
Incorrect
A project manager’s power is considerably low in a weak matrix organization. In fact, they are rather considered a coordinator or an expediter. It’s up to the functional manager to assign resources in such organizations. Therefore, the only solution to obtain the needed resources in this situation is by negotiating your requirements with the functional manager.
-
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
A product owner who’s new to the agile approach wrote the following user story: “As a customer, I want a new functionality so that I can achieve a 50% increase in sales”. The project manager found the user story to be deficient, explaining to the product owner that:
Correct
Explanation
The user story written by the product owner is not specific and cannot be tested.A good user story should be:
“I” Independent (of all others)
“N” Negotiable
“V” Valuable
“E” Estimable (to an acceptable approximation)
“S” Small (to fit within an iteration)
“T” Testable
(PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 223)
Incorrect
Explanation
The user story written by the product owner is not specific and cannot be tested.A good user story should be:
“I” Independent (of all others)
“N” Negotiable
“V” Valuable
“E” Estimable (to an acceptable approximation)
“S” Small (to fit within an iteration)
“T” Testable
(PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 223)
-
Question 32 of 150
32. Question
A product owner creates a release plan based on a projected team velocity of 50 story points. However, during the first two sprints, the team completed 37 points in sprint 1 and 35 story points in sprint 2. What should the agile project manager do in this situation? (Select two)
Correct
Scrum uses empirical data to measure work progress, therefore the project manager should let the product owner know that, based on current performance, the release plan is not feasible. The product manager can update the release plan or study with the project manager the possibility of adding more resources to the team.
Option B: The capacity of the team is around 36 story points, and it wouldn’t be possible to motivate the team to consistently reach 50 points on each sprint.
Option C: A sprint has a timeboxed duration which should not be extended for any reason.
Incorrect
Scrum uses empirical data to measure work progress, therefore the project manager should let the product owner know that, based on current performance, the release plan is not feasible. The product manager can update the release plan or study with the project manager the possibility of adding more resources to the team.
Option B: The capacity of the team is around 36 story points, and it wouldn’t be possible to motivate the team to consistently reach 50 points on each sprint.
Option C: A sprint has a timeboxed duration which should not be extended for any reason.
-
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
A project team member notices that some requirements are missing from the project documentations. The project manager asks the team member to resolve the issue. What artifacts can the team member add to properly reflect the requirements statement? (Select three)
Correct
Requirements statement can be expressed in artifacts, such as use cases, user stories, backlog items and visual models.
Option A: Risk register is a tool to identify, assess and manage risks throughout the project. It does not capture requirements but focuses on potential risks that could affect the project.
Option D: Gantt chart is a tool used to visualize the project schedule, it does not express any requirements.
Incorrect
Requirements statement can be expressed in artifacts, such as use cases, user stories, backlog items and visual models.
Option A: Risk register is a tool to identify, assess and manage risks throughout the project. It does not capture requirements but focuses on potential risks that could affect the project.
Option D: Gantt chart is a tool used to visualize the project schedule, it does not express any requirements.
-
Question 34 of 150
34. Question
Three manufacturing lines are producing 5 mm diameter cylindrical steel bars. In order to perform a quality inspection, the project manager takes 10 random bars from each line. The following are the inspection results in mm measurements. The results of Line 1 can be described as:
Correct
The results are precise because all measurements are close to 4.45mm (+ or – 5mm). Precision entails delivering end-products with similar dimensions, which may or may not be close to the required dimensions. Precise measurements are not necessarily close to the target value; they’re just close to one another.
Option A: Accuracy, however, implies creating products with close dimensions to requirements.
Incorrect
The results are precise because all measurements are close to 4.45mm (+ or – 5mm). Precision entails delivering end-products with similar dimensions, which may or may not be close to the required dimensions. Precise measurements are not necessarily close to the target value; they’re just close to one another.
Option A: Accuracy, however, implies creating products with close dimensions to requirements.
-
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
A project manager is evaluating a potential industrial project. To determine whether its anticipated financial gains will outweigh its present-day investment, the project manager uses the Net Present Value (NPV) as an effective tool to help her determine whether the project will be profitable or not. For instance, NPV > 0 means:
Correct
The larger the Net Present Value (NPV), the more profitable the project will be for the organization. A positive NPV indicates that the investment is worthwhile.
Incorrect
The larger the Net Present Value (NPV), the more profitable the project will be for the organization. A positive NPV indicates that the investment is worthwhile.
-
Question 36 of 150
36. Question
All of the following imply servant leadership characteristics, except:
Correct
A servant leader promotes team growth, prioritizes their needs, and plans for successors by developing future servant leaders. This leadership style, however, does not entail that the project manager has to take instructions from their team.
Incorrect
A servant leader promotes team growth, prioritizes their needs, and plans for successors by developing future servant leaders. This leadership style, however, does not entail that the project manager has to take instructions from their team.
-
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
A project’s performance measurements are calculated based on the following information: EV = $2,000 and AC = $1,000. What is the status of the project?
Correct
The CPI (Cost Performance Index) is a measure of the conformance of the actual work completed (EV, Earned Value) with the incurred Actual Cost (AC): CPI = EV / AC = $2,000 / $1,000 = 2 which means that the project is under budget.
Options A & B: The Schedule Performance Index measures the conformance of actual progress to the planned progress (SPI = EV / PV). Since the PV is unknown, we can’t find out if the project is behind or ahead of schedule.
Incorrect
The CPI (Cost Performance Index) is a measure of the conformance of the actual work completed (EV, Earned Value) with the incurred Actual Cost (AC): CPI = EV / AC = $2,000 / $1,000 = 2 which means that the project is under budget.
Options A & B: The Schedule Performance Index measures the conformance of actual progress to the planned progress (SPI = EV / PV). Since the PV is unknown, we can’t find out if the project is behind or ahead of schedule.
-
Question 38 of 150
38. Question
A project manager is developing the business case of a green transportation project. To do so, they decide to use the SWOT technique. How should the project manager apply this technique?
Correct
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It’s a tool that project managers use to assess the opportunities and threats they might face, as well as their projects’ strengths and weaknesses (PMBOK 7th edition, page 177).
Option A: The PDCA cycle is a quality management technique to control and continuously improve processes and products.
Options B & D: Assessing the project’s business model or conducting a benefit/cost analysis could be part of developing the business case, but both methods have a different purpose from the SWOT technique.
Incorrect
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It’s a tool that project managers use to assess the opportunities and threats they might face, as well as their projects’ strengths and weaknesses (PMBOK 7th edition, page 177).
Option A: The PDCA cycle is a quality management technique to control and continuously improve processes and products.
Options B & D: Assessing the project’s business model or conducting a benefit/cost analysis could be part of developing the business case, but both methods have a different purpose from the SWOT technique.
-
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
The product owner should sort the product backlog items by placing:
Correct
The product owner is responsible for placing the clearest and most valuable items at the top of the product backlog. Consequently, less valuable items will be dragged to the bottom.
Options A & C: Product backlog items should not be organized chronologically or according to their difficulty level.
Incorrect
The product owner is responsible for placing the clearest and most valuable items at the top of the product backlog. Consequently, less valuable items will be dragged to the bottom.
Options A & C: Product backlog items should not be organized chronologically or according to their difficulty level.
-
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
A project manager is leading a complex project with a very demanding sponsor who wants frequent updates on project progress and future plans. What’s the best way for the project manager to communicate with the sponsor?
Correct
Since the project is complex, frequent communication is required. Therefore, the best option is to schedule regular meetings once or twice a week, with the possibility of attending standup meetings to get daily updates.
Option B: Monthly meetings, even if they’re face-to-face, are not efficient for complex projects.
Option D: Giving access to the project management software is considered pull communication since the sponsor has to seek information themself. Pull communication might not be sufficient for high-power demanding stakeholders.
Incorrect
Since the project is complex, frequent communication is required. Therefore, the best option is to schedule regular meetings once or twice a week, with the possibility of attending standup meetings to get daily updates.
Option B: Monthly meetings, even if they’re face-to-face, are not efficient for complex projects.
Option D: Giving access to the project management software is considered pull communication since the sponsor has to seek information themself. Pull communication might not be sufficient for high-power demanding stakeholders.
-
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
In a typical communication context, elements interfering with the transmission and understanding of the project manager’s message are called:
Correct
In a typical communication context, and according to the sender-receiver model, anything that obstructs the transmission and comprehension of a message is called noise.
Option A & C: The key components of the communication process also include encoding thoughts or ideas, a message as the output of encoding, a medium to transmit the message, and decoding the message back into meaningful information.
Incorrect
In a typical communication context, and according to the sender-receiver model, anything that obstructs the transmission and comprehension of a message is called noise.
Option A & C: The key components of the communication process also include encoding thoughts or ideas, a message as the output of encoding, a medium to transmit the message, and decoding the message back into meaningful information.
-
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
Which of the following tools and techniques are used for stakeholders analysis? (Select two)
Correct
In order to properly analyze the project stakeholders, a business analyst can use one or more of these tools (PMI Guide to business analysis , page 115):
Job analysis: This technique is employed to determine the skills, qualifications, and competencies needed for a particular job or role.
Persona analysis: Persona analysis involves creating a fictional character, known as a persona, to represent an individual or a group of stakeholders within a user class.
Stakeholders maps: Stakeholder maps can include matrices that illustrate the influence and impact of each stakeholder.
RACI matrix: This a tool designed to clarify stakeholder responsibilities by mapping out who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each project activity. It helps ensure effective communication and management of stakeholder expectations throughout the project.
Option B: A decision tree is a tool used for decision-making and analyzing different outcomes of various choices.
Option D: Focus groups assemble prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts (SMEs) to gather insights into their expectations and attitudes toward a proposed solution.
Incorrect
In order to properly analyze the project stakeholders, a business analyst can use one or more of these tools (PMI Guide to business analysis , page 115):
Job analysis: This technique is employed to determine the skills, qualifications, and competencies needed for a particular job or role.
Persona analysis: Persona analysis involves creating a fictional character, known as a persona, to represent an individual or a group of stakeholders within a user class.
Stakeholders maps: Stakeholder maps can include matrices that illustrate the influence and impact of each stakeholder.
RACI matrix: This a tool designed to clarify stakeholder responsibilities by mapping out who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each project activity. It helps ensure effective communication and management of stakeholder expectations throughout the project.
Option B: A decision tree is a tool used for decision-making and analyzing different outcomes of various choices.
Option D: Focus groups assemble prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts (SMEs) to gather insights into their expectations and attitudes toward a proposed solution.
-
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
A project manager is leading a one-year project. Five months into the execution phase, %50 of the project work is completed.
What is the project’s SPI and status?
Correct
EV = % of completed work X BAC (Budget at Completion) = (6/12) X BAC.
Since the project manager is 5 months into the project, then the PV = (5/12) X BAC. Doing the math, SPI = EV / PV = 6 / 5 = 1.2.
You can also conclude that the project is ahead of schedule without doing any math since half of the work is done before reaching half of the project duration. Since the project is ahead of schedule, you should just select the answer where the SPI is greater than 1.
Incorrect
EV = % of completed work X BAC (Budget at Completion) = (6/12) X BAC.
Since the project manager is 5 months into the project, then the PV = (5/12) X BAC. Doing the math, SPI = EV / PV = 6 / 5 = 1.2.
You can also conclude that the project is ahead of schedule without doing any math since half of the work is done before reaching half of the project duration. Since the project is ahead of schedule, you should just select the answer where the SPI is greater than 1.
-
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
During a workshop about the Agile approach, the project manager stated that Agile teams should be cross-functional and self-organizing, explaining that:
Correct
A cross-functional team is a group of individuals who acquire different substantial skill sets that are enough to accomplish their common goal proficiently. A self-organizing team is autonomous in the sense that it does not rely on any outsiders to figure out how to best accomplish its work. This does not mean that each team member possesses all of the necessary skills for delivering the product; rather, they just need to be competent in their area of expertise.
Incorrect
A cross-functional team is a group of individuals who acquire different substantial skill sets that are enough to accomplish their common goal proficiently. A self-organizing team is autonomous in the sense that it does not rely on any outsiders to figure out how to best accomplish its work. This does not mean that each team member possesses all of the necessary skills for delivering the product; rather, they just need to be competent in their area of expertise.
-
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
A project manager plans to discuss with her manager the need for additional resources to handle complex tasks her team cannot perform. These resources will be released from the project once the tasks are completed. Which skills are most crucial for the project manager in this situation?
Correct
Trying to convince upper management requires the use of interpersonal skills, which are often needed when acquiring resources.
Option A: The project manager may lack planning skills since she didn’t identify the resource requirement from the beginning, but this situation does not tackle this aspect or the need to respond to the risk associated with adding more resources.
Option C: In case the manager accepts her request, the project manager may not need to go through the hiring process if resources are already available within the organization.
Incorrect
Trying to convince upper management requires the use of interpersonal skills, which are often needed when acquiring resources.
Option A: The project manager may lack planning skills since she didn’t identify the resource requirement from the beginning, but this situation does not tackle this aspect or the need to respond to the risk associated with adding more resources.
Option C: In case the manager accepts her request, the project manager may not need to go through the hiring process if resources are already available within the organization.
-
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
To adopt an agile mindset, the project team can use all of the following questions while developing the product, except:
Correct
Agile teams don’t focus on how to predict the project work; instead, they try to focus on high-priority tasks, getting early feedback, and adopting the servant leadership approach.
Incorrect
Agile teams don’t focus on how to predict the project work; instead, they try to focus on high-priority tasks, getting early feedback, and adopting the servant leadership approach.
-
Question 47 of 150
47. Question
A business analyst’s role involves extensive upfront planning and detailed requirements gathering primarily in the early stages of a project. In which development approach the business analyst is working?
Correct
The predictive approach relies on a well-defined plan and aims to minimize changes once the project is underway.
Option D: The adaptive approach emphasizes flexibility and adaptability. Requirements are continuously evolving based on stakeholder feedback and changes in project conditions.
Incorrect
The predictive approach relies on a well-defined plan and aims to minimize changes once the project is underway.
Option D: The adaptive approach emphasizes flexibility and adaptability. Requirements are continuously evolving based on stakeholder feedback and changes in project conditions.
-
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
A project manager, who manages an online e-learning platform, decided to make all new release information accessible to the platform members under the “News” section on the website. What type of communication is the project manager intends to use?
Correct
Pull communication is a communication type where access to the information is provided, however, the receiver must proactively seek out and retrieve this information. When the communication is solely for informative purposes, pull communication should be used. It will have little to no impact on the project if the recipients do not read it. According to the PMI process groups guide: “Pull communication is used for large complex information sets, or for large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the content at their own discretion subject to security procedures. These methods include web portals, intranet sites, e-learning, lessons learned databases, or knowledge repositories.” (PMI Process groups Guide, page 253)
Option D: PMBOK defined three types of communication: interactive, push, and pull. Proactive communication is a made-up term.
Incorrect
Pull communication is a communication type where access to the information is provided, however, the receiver must proactively seek out and retrieve this information. When the communication is solely for informative purposes, pull communication should be used. It will have little to no impact on the project if the recipients do not read it. According to the PMI process groups guide: “Pull communication is used for large complex information sets, or for large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the content at their own discretion subject to security procedures. These methods include web portals, intranet sites, e-learning, lessons learned databases, or knowledge repositories.” (PMI Process groups Guide, page 253)
Option D: PMBOK defined three types of communication: interactive, push, and pull. Proactive communication is a made-up term.
-
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
A project manager attended a leadership training workshop. The trainer listed the characteristics of servant leaders, then mentioned some examples of a servant leader’s behavioral traits, such as: (Select two)
Correct
Helping someone do a task properly and focusing on people’s well-being are the main behavioral aspects and characteristics of servant leaders. However, rewarding high-performing employees is considered transactional leadership, whereas inspiring people fall under the charismatic leadership style.
Incorrect
Helping someone do a task properly and focusing on people’s well-being are the main behavioral aspects and characteristics of servant leaders. However, rewarding high-performing employees is considered transactional leadership, whereas inspiring people fall under the charismatic leadership style.
-
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
A project manager has just taken over an ongoing project for creating a newborns’ essentials brand. Items made of fabric are manufactured by external vendors. To get to know all vendors involved in the project, the project manager should check out:
Correct
The stakeholder register document contains all relevant information concerning the project stakeholders including their influence, interest, involvement, and potential impact on the project’s success. External vendors are considered project stakeholders and therefore they should take part in the stakeholder register. The project manager should refer to this document whenever they need any information concerning both internal and external stakeholders.
Incorrect
The stakeholder register document contains all relevant information concerning the project stakeholders including their influence, interest, involvement, and potential impact on the project’s success. External vendors are considered project stakeholders and therefore they should take part in the stakeholder register. The project manager should refer to this document whenever they need any information concerning both internal and external stakeholders.
-
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
What are the areas of emotional intelligence (select three)
Correct
Social awareness involves empathy and understanding the emotions of others. It encompasses the ability to interpret nonverbal cues and body language.
Self-awareness is the capacity to objectively evaluate oneself. It involves an understanding of one’s emotions, goals, motivations, strengths, and weaknesses. Self-management, also known as self-regulation, is the ability to control and redirect disruptive feelings and impulses. It is the ability to think before acting, suspending snap judgments and impulsive decisions.
Incorrect
Social awareness involves empathy and understanding the emotions of others. It encompasses the ability to interpret nonverbal cues and body language.
Self-awareness is the capacity to objectively evaluate oneself. It involves an understanding of one’s emotions, goals, motivations, strengths, and weaknesses. Self-management, also known as self-regulation, is the ability to control and redirect disruptive feelings and impulses. It is the ability to think before acting, suspending snap judgments and impulsive decisions.
-
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
A project manager is assigned to lead a megaproject that requires experts and resources from different countries. Unable to predict worldwide epidemics, the project team is worried about facing another event like CoronaVirus that might cause delays and cost overruns. What should the project manager do during the risk planning phase? (Select two)
Correct
The project team should perform a qualitative risk analysis. If they find that the risk must be prioritized, a detailed risk response should be then developed. All identified risks should be added to the risk register.
Option C: During the project execution, all occurring issues are noted in the issue log.
Option D: Monitoring the risk development is undertaken during the execution phase too, not the planning phase.
Incorrect
The project team should perform a qualitative risk analysis. If they find that the risk must be prioritized, a detailed risk response should be then developed. All identified risks should be added to the risk register.
Option C: During the project execution, all occurring issues are noted in the issue log.
Option D: Monitoring the risk development is undertaken during the execution phase too, not the planning phase.
-
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
Which of these documents comprises thorough descriptions of work packages?
Correct
The planned work is included in the lowest level of the WBS components, known as work packages. Detailed information on work packages, such as descriptions, owners, prerequisites, successors, due dates, etc. is included in the Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary (PMBOK 7th edition, page 253).
Incorrect
The planned work is included in the lowest level of the WBS components, known as work packages. Detailed information on work packages, such as descriptions, owners, prerequisites, successors, due dates, etc. is included in the Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary (PMBOK 7th edition, page 253).
-
Question 54 of 150
54. Question
Who can sign the project charter? (Select three)
Correct
Projects get authorized by someone external to the project such as the sponsor, PMO, or steering committee (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
Option C: The project manager cannot sign the charter to authorize himself to start executing the project.
Option E: The project team doesn’t have the power to sign the project charter.
Incorrect
Projects get authorized by someone external to the project such as the sponsor, PMO, or steering committee (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
Option C: The project manager cannot sign the charter to authorize himself to start executing the project.
Option E: The project team doesn’t have the power to sign the project charter.
-
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
Knowledge garnered through personal experience is the most difficult to express, articulate, or write down. This type of knowledge is known as:
Correct
Tacit knowledge, aka implicit knowledge, is the type of knowledge that can’t be transferred to another person by means of writing or verbalizing. Examples of tacit knowledge include insights, beliefs, experience, and know-how.
Option A: The opposite of tacit knowledge is explicit, formal, or codified knowledge (PMBOK 7th edition, page 70).
Incorrect
Tacit knowledge, aka implicit knowledge, is the type of knowledge that can’t be transferred to another person by means of writing or verbalizing. Examples of tacit knowledge include insights, beliefs, experience, and know-how.
Option A: The opposite of tacit knowledge is explicit, formal, or codified knowledge (PMBOK 7th edition, page 70).
-
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
What type of requirements are expressed in the form of a business case?
Correct
Business requirements outline the high-level needs and objectives of the organization, including key issues or opportunities that the project aims to address. They provide a rationale for undertaking the project, typically articulated through a business case that highlights the anticipated benefits and strategic value.
Incorrect
Business requirements outline the high-level needs and objectives of the organization, including key issues or opportunities that the project aims to address. They provide a rationale for undertaking the project, typically articulated through a business case that highlights the anticipated benefits and strategic value.
-
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
How is the cost variance measured?
Correct
Cost variance is the difference between the estimated cost and the actual cost. Its formula is EV – AC
Incorrect
Cost variance is the difference between the estimated cost and the actual cost. Its formula is EV – AC
-
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
Due to high levels of uncertainty, the project manager opts for the rolling wave method for the project planning. How is this method useful in this case?
Correct
Rolling wave is a project planning method that consists of a gradual elaboration of details to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) over time. Near-term deliverables are decomposed into individual components (work packages) that are broken down to the greatest degree of detail. Long-term deliverables, on the other hand, are identified more broadly. In this way, rolling wave planning allows work to progress on current and near-term deliverables while the planning for potential work packages continues.
Options A & B & C: The Rolling wave method is used to address uncertainty rather than prioritizing, organizing, or sequencing activities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249).
Incorrect
Rolling wave is a project planning method that consists of a gradual elaboration of details to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) over time. Near-term deliverables are decomposed into individual components (work packages) that are broken down to the greatest degree of detail. Long-term deliverables, on the other hand, are identified more broadly. In this way, rolling wave planning allows work to progress on current and near-term deliverables while the planning for potential work packages continues.
Options A & B & C: The Rolling wave method is used to address uncertainty rather than prioritizing, organizing, or sequencing activities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249).
-
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
A project has 5 iteration cycles, as the project advances to the 3rd iteration, the number of user stories in the backlog decreases significantly. What’s the potential cause of the decrease?
Correct
As the project progresses, the team reviews and updates the backlog. During this refinement, lower-priority or less valuable user stories might be removed or deprioritized to focus on higher-priority tasks.
Incorrect
As the project progresses, the team reviews and updates the backlog. During this refinement, lower-priority or less valuable user stories might be removed or deprioritized to focus on higher-priority tasks.
-
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
An agile project manager observes that several stakeholders have become disengaged; they rarely attend meetings or provide feedback and input. What can the project manager do to address this issue? (Select two)
Correct
Most probably, stakeholders are losing interest in the project because their input or feedback is being disregarded, or they are not seeing any tangible progress. The project manager has to engage stakeholders by taking their feedback into consideration to show them that their ideas are valued. The project manager should also demonstrate working increments as early in the project lifecycle as possible. This is considered one of the advantages of the agile approach that stakeholders expect and appreciate.
Options A & B: Sending reminders before each meeting or allowing for anonymous feedback does not yield more engagement as both options don’t address the root cause of the problem.
Incorrect
Most probably, stakeholders are losing interest in the project because their input or feedback is being disregarded, or they are not seeing any tangible progress. The project manager has to engage stakeholders by taking their feedback into consideration to show them that their ideas are valued. The project manager should also demonstrate working increments as early in the project lifecycle as possible. This is considered one of the advantages of the agile approach that stakeholders expect and appreciate.
Options A & B: Sending reminders before each meeting or allowing for anonymous feedback does not yield more engagement as both options don’t address the root cause of the problem.
-
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
After multiple negotiation sessions, all of the terms and details were agreed upon and the seller finally got the 18-month building project contract for $715,500. What type of contract is used in this scenario?
Correct
Fixed price contracts are used for projects with clear requirements where a price is fixed in return for the seller’s services and/or products.
Incorrect
Fixed price contracts are used for projects with clear requirements where a price is fixed in return for the seller’s services and/or products.
-
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
A project manager decides to use the Five Whys method in order to investigate a dysfunctioning feature. Why did the project manager choose to use this specific technique?
Correct
As a problem-solving technique, the Five whys is used to explore the underlying cause of a defect or an issue. By asking successive “Why?” questions, the team digs deep to figure out what went wrong and thus be able to determine how to properly address the problem and how to avoid similar issues in the future.
Incorrect
As a problem-solving technique, the Five whys is used to explore the underlying cause of a defect or an issue. By asking successive “Why?” questions, the team digs deep to figure out what went wrong and thus be able to determine how to properly address the problem and how to avoid similar issues in the future.
-
Question 63 of 150
63. Question
A project manager is leading a construction project. Throughout its execution, the project was influenced by Organizational Process Assets (OPAs). Which of the following statements are considered as OPAs? (Select two)
Correct
“Workers who don’t obey safety rules will be penalized” and “Only authorized personnel are allowed on site” are considered Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) since they represent the organization’s internal procedures. “Workers have expertise in infrastructure construction” is an internal Enterprise Environmental Factor, while “Construction work requires a building permit from the City council” is an external Enterprise Environmental Factor.
Incorrect
“Workers who don’t obey safety rules will be penalized” and “Only authorized personnel are allowed on site” are considered Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) since they represent the organization’s internal procedures. “Workers have expertise in infrastructure construction” is an internal Enterprise Environmental Factor, while “Construction work requires a building permit from the City council” is an external Enterprise Environmental Factor.
-
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
An Entity-Relationship Diagram (ERD) is a model that illustrates the business data requirements, including the various pieces of information and their interrelationships. What type of model does the ERD represent?
Correct
Data models are structured representations that document how data is stored, organized, and flows within a system. They include entity relationship diagrams, data flow diagrams, and data dictionaries.
Incorrect
Data models are structured representations that document how data is stored, organized, and flows within a system. They include entity relationship diagrams, data flow diagrams, and data dictionaries.
-
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
In business analysis, which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between project life cycles and product life cycles?
Correct
During the product life cycle, a needs assessment helps align and justify the investment in a new project. Once the project is completed, a product evaluation is carried out within the product life cycle to assess whether a new project is necessary to further develop the product. Business analysis covers the entire product life cycle, including the various projects that contribute to the product’s advancement.
Incorrect
During the product life cycle, a needs assessment helps align and justify the investment in a new project. Once the project is completed, a product evaluation is carried out within the product life cycle to assess whether a new project is necessary to further develop the product. Business analysis covers the entire product life cycle, including the various projects that contribute to the product’s advancement.
-
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
What should the project manager do during the bidder conference? (Select two)
Correct
Bidder conference, aka contractor conference or vendor conference, is arranged to ensure that sellers have a common understanding of the project procurement requirements (PMBOK 7th edition, page 70). During the conference, the project manager and the stakeholders will discuss their procurement needs and answer any questions the sellers might have.
Option A & D: In a bidder conference, the project manager does not shortlist prospective sellers or award the contract.
Option C: The bid document has to be shared with participants before the bidder conference.
Incorrect
Bidder conference, aka contractor conference or vendor conference, is arranged to ensure that sellers have a common understanding of the project procurement requirements (PMBOK 7th edition, page 70). During the conference, the project manager and the stakeholders will discuss their procurement needs and answer any questions the sellers might have.
Option A & D: In a bidder conference, the project manager does not shortlist prospective sellers or award the contract.
Option C: The bid document has to be shared with participants before the bidder conference.
-
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
After 8 years of experience in the same position, a project manager gets promoted to a Portfolio manager role. A portfolio is:
Correct
A portfolio is a grouping of projects and programs. A portfolio’s purpose is to establish centralized management and oversight for a number of projects and/or programs. It also helps establish standardized governance across the organization. By creating and managing a portfolio, you’re ensuring that the organization is choosing the right projects that align with its values, strategies, and goals (PMBOK 7th edition, page 244).
Incorrect
A portfolio is a grouping of projects and programs. A portfolio’s purpose is to establish centralized management and oversight for a number of projects and/or programs. It also helps establish standardized governance across the organization. By creating and managing a portfolio, you’re ensuring that the organization is choosing the right projects that align with its values, strategies, and goals (PMBOK 7th edition, page 244).
-
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
A project manager canceled a lessons learned review meeting due to time constraints. What could be the potential consequences of this decision?
Correct
The knowledge acquired from the process of carrying out a project is referred to as “lessons learned.” This covers both the positive and negative aspects. The aim is to replicate good practices and avoid repeating errors. By failing to examine or go over past lessons learned, the project manager risks making the same errors as in previous projects. Therefore, the earlier the lessons are identified and embedded into a project, the more value they will provide. So ideally, a project manager should conduct reviews on an ongoing basis to allow for continuous improvement. Such a review will capture in-depth inputs from the project team, sponsors, stakeholders, etc. Capturing and going over lessons learned on a regular basis helps keep the project on track. In the long term, it will also help organizations continuously develop and enhance the way they conduct projects.
Incorrect
The knowledge acquired from the process of carrying out a project is referred to as “lessons learned.” This covers both the positive and negative aspects. The aim is to replicate good practices and avoid repeating errors. By failing to examine or go over past lessons learned, the project manager risks making the same errors as in previous projects. Therefore, the earlier the lessons are identified and embedded into a project, the more value they will provide. So ideally, a project manager should conduct reviews on an ongoing basis to allow for continuous improvement. Such a review will capture in-depth inputs from the project team, sponsors, stakeholders, etc. Capturing and going over lessons learned on a regular basis helps keep the project on track. In the long term, it will also help organizations continuously develop and enhance the way they conduct projects.
-
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
The critical path method is a schedule network analysis technique. Which of the following statements is true regarding the critical path?
Correct
The critical path comprises tasks that must be completed as scheduled in order for the project to be finished on time. If a task is delayed, it may cause a delay in the project’s completion date.
Option A: Some tasks on the critical path may not be critical themselves, but they need to be accomplished on time in order for the critical task(s) to be completed. The critical path method is used in projects following a predictive life cycle where change requests could have a direct impact on the project.
Incorrect
The critical path comprises tasks that must be completed as scheduled in order for the project to be finished on time. If a task is delayed, it may cause a delay in the project’s completion date.
Option A: Some tasks on the critical path may not be critical themselves, but they need to be accomplished on time in order for the critical task(s) to be completed. The critical path method is used in projects following a predictive life cycle where change requests could have a direct impact on the project.
-
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
Who should the business analyst consult to understand the outcome of a certain process and how it meets the organization’s objectives?
Correct
The process owner makes sure that the process meets the target laid down by the organization and is responsible for the overall performance and effectiveness of the process.
Incorrect
The process owner makes sure that the process meets the target laid down by the organization and is responsible for the overall performance and effectiveness of the process.
-
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
During the execution of a construction project, the supplier informed the project manager that delivering the new order of steel bars may have a 3-day delay. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
The project manager should evaluate the impact of the delay before making any decision. A delayed activity doesn’t necessarily result in the whole project delay. For instance, if the activity is not on the critical path and it has a lag of more than three days, then the delay won’t probably have any impact on the project.
Option A: There is no need for negotiating the delay or looking for a new vendor to get the order delivered on time
Incorrect
The project manager should evaluate the impact of the delay before making any decision. A delayed activity doesn’t necessarily result in the whole project delay. For instance, if the activity is not on the critical path and it has a lag of more than three days, then the delay won’t probably have any impact on the project.
Option A: There is no need for negotiating the delay or looking for a new vendor to get the order delivered on time
-
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
During project execution, the project team had an issue with an unreliable vendor. Since the incident had a high impact on the project scope, the project manager decided to terminate the vendor’s contract and never deal with them again in the future. Where should the project manager record this issue?
Correct
The Issue Log is a project document where all information concerning faced issues is recorded and monitored (PMBOK 7th edition, page 336).
Option A: Even though the described scenario involves lessons learned (never to deal with the unreliable vendor in the future), the question only inquires about where to record the issue.
Incorrect
The Issue Log is a project document where all information concerning faced issues is recorded and monitored (PMBOK 7th edition, page 336).
Option A: Even though the described scenario involves lessons learned (never to deal with the unreliable vendor in the future), the question only inquires about where to record the issue.
-
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
For a construction project, concrete is poured after the completion of rebar and formwork. Now, workers must wait 14 days before removing the formwork, as the concrete must be strong enough for this operation. The 14-day period is an example of:
Correct
Lag Time is when a delay is purposely made between activities.
Option A: Lead time, on the other hand, is the time saved by starting an activity before its predecessor is completed.
Option C & D: Crashing and fast-tracking are two schedule compression techniques.
Incorrect
Lag Time is when a delay is purposely made between activities.
Option A: Lead time, on the other hand, is the time saved by starting an activity before its predecessor is completed.
Option C & D: Crashing and fast-tracking are two schedule compression techniques.
-
Question 74 of 150
74. Question
A new business analyst is getting hired for a new project, which competencies should the business analyst possess? (Select three)
Correct
The business analyst competencies as defined in the (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 53 & 54) are Analytical skills, Expert judgment, Communication skills, Personal skills, Leadership skills and Tool knowledge.
Option D: Management skills are more required for project managers.
Option E: The project team may be required to have technical skills.
Incorrect
The business analyst competencies as defined in the (PMI Guide to business analysis, page 53 & 54) are Analytical skills, Expert judgment, Communication skills, Personal skills, Leadership skills and Tool knowledge.
Option D: Management skills are more required for project managers.
Option E: The project team may be required to have technical skills.
-
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
During which of the following meetings should the Agile project team demonstrate a potentially shippable product increment to the project stakeholders?
Correct
At the end of each iteration, the project manager and the project team should demonstrate a potentially shippable product increment to the concerned stakeholders along with the Product Owner to get their feedback. This occurs during an Iteration Review Meeting. The product owner and stakeholders use this meeting to evaluate the product and release backlog priorities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 180).
Incorrect
At the end of each iteration, the project manager and the project team should demonstrate a potentially shippable product increment to the concerned stakeholders along with the Product Owner to get their feedback. This occurs during an Iteration Review Meeting. The product owner and stakeholders use this meeting to evaluate the product and release backlog priorities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 180).
-
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
When the cost of quality of the project they’re leading reached a certain level, the project manager was invited to a meeting with their line manager to explain the project situation. During the meeting, the project manager was asked about the project’s cost of non-conformance. Which of the following fall under the cost of non-conformance? (Select three)
Correct
Destructive testing loss is an example of the cost of conformance, the rest fall under the cost of non-conformance. Cost of Non-Conformance includes the expenses arising due to non-conformance to quality requirements.
Cost of Non-Conformance can be divided into two categories:
Internal Failure Costs are incurred when defects are detected internally (i.e. not yet presented to the customers) which include defect repair and rework.
External Failure Costs are incurred when defects are discovered after the deliverables have been shipped to customers (this is the worst type of quality cost) These include warranty work, liabilities, and loss of business goodwill.
Reference: PMBOK 7th edition, page 89.
Incorrect
Destructive testing loss is an example of the cost of conformance, the rest fall under the cost of non-conformance. Cost of Non-Conformance includes the expenses arising due to non-conformance to quality requirements.
Cost of Non-Conformance can be divided into two categories:
Internal Failure Costs are incurred when defects are detected internally (i.e. not yet presented to the customers) which include defect repair and rework.
External Failure Costs are incurred when defects are discovered after the deliverables have been shipped to customers (this is the worst type of quality cost) These include warranty work, liabilities, and loss of business goodwill.
Reference: PMBOK 7th edition, page 89.
-
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
A new team member asks about what project management involves. The project manager answers: “Project Management is ________________________”
Correct
Project management involves applying a set of processes, skills, knowledge, experience, and methods, to attain a number of predefined project objectives and requirements according to predetermined acceptance criteria (PMBOK 7th edition, page 17).
Incorrect
Project management involves applying a set of processes, skills, knowledge, experience, and methods, to attain a number of predefined project objectives and requirements according to predetermined acceptance criteria (PMBOK 7th edition, page 17).
-
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
What added value do prototypes provide? (Select two)
Correct
Prototyping is a technique used to collect early feedback on the requirements for further refinement and clarification, along with clarifying ambiguities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 246).
Options B & C: The development of a prototype can either increase the project cost and duration or reduce them depending on its results.
Incorrect
Prototyping is a technique used to collect early feedback on the requirements for further refinement and clarification, along with clarifying ambiguities (PMBOK 7th edition, page 246).
Options B & C: The development of a prototype can either increase the project cost and duration or reduce them depending on its results.
-
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
Which is the most simple and time-efficient decision-making technique?
Correct
Voting is used to reach a consensus decision by selecting the option which gets more votes from the team members. This technique is simple, intuitive, and both time and cost-efficient.
Incorrect
Voting is used to reach a consensus decision by selecting the option which gets more votes from the team members. This technique is simple, intuitive, and both time and cost-efficient.
-
Question 80 of 150
80. Question
During the last three daily standup meetings with the team, the project manager notices that a new team member is struggling with one of their assigned tasks as they seem to be making no progress towards completing it. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Asking another team member to help mentor the new member and guide them through getting their task completed and overcoming the challenging aspects of their assignment is the right course of action. Since the member is new and they might lack certain skills or experience dealing with certain types of tasks, they will get the chance to learn and overcome any impediments by collaborating with more experienced team members.
Incorrect
Asking another team member to help mentor the new member and guide them through getting their task completed and overcoming the challenging aspects of their assignment is the right course of action. Since the member is new and they might lack certain skills or experience dealing with certain types of tasks, they will get the chance to learn and overcome any impediments by collaborating with more experienced team members.
-
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
After baselining the scope and during project execution, a key stakeholder, who is a member of the Change Control Board (CCB), requested a new service. Taking into consideration that the project manager is convinced that this new service can add value to the project, what should they do?
Correct
Regardless of the fact that the change was requested by a member of the CCB, the project manager should submit a change request according to the procedures defined in the change control system. This system describes how modifications to project deliverables should be undertaken (PMBOK 7th edition, page 332).
Incorrect
Regardless of the fact that the change was requested by a member of the CCB, the project manager should submit a change request according to the procedures defined in the change control system. This system describes how modifications to project deliverables should be undertaken (PMBOK 7th edition, page 332).
-
Question 82 of 150
82. Question
During the risk identification process, attrition of resources was identified as a major risk. As a response, the project manager decided to opt for financial incentives to motivate their team members. What type of risk response are they following?
Correct
The project manager is mitigating the risk of resource attrition. This type of risk response aims to diminish the probability and/or impact of a threat (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
Incorrect
The project manager is mitigating the risk of resource attrition. This type of risk response aims to diminish the probability and/or impact of a threat (PMBOK 7th edition, page 123).
-
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
A project task is 90% complete. It cannot, however, be finished until another task is completed. What type of dependency is this? (Select two)
Correct
This is an example of finish-to-finish mandatory dependency. Two tasks may in fact run concurrently in the case of a finish-to-finish dependency. However, the second task can be entirely completed only after the first task is 100% done. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
Incorrect
This is an example of finish-to-finish mandatory dependency. Two tasks may in fact run concurrently in the case of a finish-to-finish dependency. However, the second task can be entirely completed only after the first task is 100% done. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
-
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
A new business analyst is hired for a large healthcare project. While going through the documents, the business analyst finds it difficult to understand the project’s goal and requirements. What should the business analyst do?
Correct
The Business Analyst should seek clarification from the stakeholders before making further decisions.
Option A: Planning without a clear understanding of the goals and requirements can lead to misalignment and potentially result in project failure.
Option B: While the project team can provide explanation to the requirements, stakeholders are the primary source of requirements elicitation.
Incorrect
The Business Analyst should seek clarification from the stakeholders before making further decisions.
Option A: Planning without a clear understanding of the goals and requirements can lead to misalignment and potentially result in project failure.
Option B: While the project team can provide explanation to the requirements, stakeholders are the primary source of requirements elicitation.
-
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
A project manager is assigned to an accounting software development project. In its beta version, some users reported that the software freezes one to three times a day. Since the project manager needs more information to fix the problem, they asked the users to fill in a _______________ whenever the issue occurs to include information about how the freezing happens and how long it lasts.
Correct
Check sheets, aka tally sheets, are used to gather facts in order to facilitate the collection of more data concerning a potential quality issue (PMBOK 7th edition, page 175).
Option C: A checklist is used to verify whether a set of required steps has been performed or not.
Incorrect
Check sheets, aka tally sheets, are used to gather facts in order to facilitate the collection of more data concerning a potential quality issue (PMBOK 7th edition, page 175).
Option C: A checklist is used to verify whether a set of required steps has been performed or not.
-
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
Moving the organization from the current state to the future state, and integrating a new solution into the organization’s operations is known as:
Correct
To transition the organization from its current state to a future state and effectively integrate the new solution into operations, a readiness assessment and a transition plan must be established. These are the outcomes of the “Prepare for Transition to Future State” process.
Option C: The process of examining the current environment under analysis to understand important factors that are internal or external to the organization, which may be the cause or reason for a problem or opportunity.
Incorrect
To transition the organization from its current state to a future state and effectively integrate the new solution into operations, a readiness assessment and a transition plan must be established. These are the outcomes of the “Prepare for Transition to Future State” process.
Option C: The process of examining the current environment under analysis to understand important factors that are internal or external to the organization, which may be the cause or reason for a problem or opportunity.
-
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
In a weak matrix organization, employees work across multiple projects and with various departments within the company to increase employee interaction and promote teamwork spirit. In the event that additional employees are needed, who is in charge of the hiring process under this matrix?
Correct
The functional manager is the one in charge of managing resources under a weak matrix. This matrix form has a huge resemblance to a traditional workplace hierarchy. A functional manager is a project’s main decision-maker as they supervise all of its aspects. Although the project manager also serves as a point of authority, they primarily report back to the functional manager.
Incorrect
The functional manager is the one in charge of managing resources under a weak matrix. This matrix form has a huge resemblance to a traditional workplace hierarchy. A functional manager is a project’s main decision-maker as they supervise all of its aspects. Although the project manager also serves as a point of authority, they primarily report back to the functional manager.
-
Question 88 of 150
88. Question
In which development approach are requirements often communicated through less formal internal communications and can take the form of a prototype?
Correct
In Agile methodologies, an adaptive approach focuses on informal communication, iterative feedback, and the use of prototypes to continuously explore and refine requirements throughout the development process, allowing for early feedback and adjustments.
Options A & D: In predictive development approaches, aka Waterfall, requirements are typically well-defined and documented upfront. Communication is more formal and structured.
Option B: Incremental development involves delivering parts of the solution in small, manageable increments. Prototyping is used less frequently than Agile as a communication tool to get feedback.
Incorrect
In Agile methodologies, an adaptive approach focuses on informal communication, iterative feedback, and the use of prototypes to continuously explore and refine requirements throughout the development process, allowing for early feedback and adjustments.
Options A & D: In predictive development approaches, aka Waterfall, requirements are typically well-defined and documented upfront. Communication is more formal and structured.
Option B: Incremental development involves delivering parts of the solution in small, manageable increments. Prototyping is used less frequently than Agile as a communication tool to get feedback.
-
Question 89 of 150
89. Question
A senior project manager joins an ongoing project following the resignation of its former project manager. What should the new project manager do first?
Correct
In order to effectively lead the project, the project manager should be fully aware of the project’s purpose, priorities, and deliverables. After examining the goals and deliverables included in the project charter, the project manager should create a transition plan to help the project team cope with the unexpected change, check the project logs and reports, reassess what has been accomplished so far, and maintain the team’s commitment to the project goals and priorities.
Incorrect
In order to effectively lead the project, the project manager should be fully aware of the project’s purpose, priorities, and deliverables. After examining the goals and deliverables included in the project charter, the project manager should create a transition plan to help the project team cope with the unexpected change, check the project logs and reports, reassess what has been accomplished so far, and maintain the team’s commitment to the project goals and priorities.
-
Question 90 of 150
90. Question
A project manager is leading a project within a functional organization. Halfway through the project implementation, a team member left the organization. What should the project manager do first?
Correct
First, the project manager should understand the impact of the team member’s departure on the project. It might have a big impact, therefore the leaving member needs to be promptly replaced with an experienced member. However, their departure might have a limited impact and the project can proceed without their contribution.
Options A & C: Based on the evaluation findings, a decision should be taken on whether to get a replacement or reassign the workload.
Option B: The project’s resource breakdown structure should be updated later on to reflect the new changes.
Incorrect
First, the project manager should understand the impact of the team member’s departure on the project. It might have a big impact, therefore the leaving member needs to be promptly replaced with an experienced member. However, their departure might have a limited impact and the project can proceed without their contribution.
Options A & C: Based on the evaluation findings, a decision should be taken on whether to get a replacement or reassign the workload.
Option B: The project’s resource breakdown structure should be updated later on to reflect the new changes.
-
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
Which of the following is not typically associated with business analysis?
Correct
Defining the project scope and objectives is primarily the responsibility of the project manager. While the business analyst can contribute to this process, it is not the main focus of their role.
Incorrect
Defining the project scope and objectives is primarily the responsibility of the project manager. While the business analyst can contribute to this process, it is not the main focus of their role.
-
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
A project is highly valued by the organization and is perceived as top priority. The project manager needs to acquire resources from another project. How should the project manager allocate the team?
Correct
The project manager should fully allocate the team to the top-priority project, ensuring that all resources and attention are directed towards its successful completion.
Incorrect
The project manager should fully allocate the team to the top-priority project, ensuring that all resources and attention are directed towards its successful completion.
-
Question 93 of 150
93. Question
A project manager is leading a new virtual reality game development project. The project is scheduled to last 10 months with a budget of $100,000. One month into the project, the team completed 10% of the total work. What is the project’s current Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
Correct
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a measure of the conformance of actual progress (earned value) to the planned progress: SPI = EV / PV (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249). A value of 1.0 indicates that the project performance is on target. EV = 10% x $100,000 = $10,000, PV = (1 Month / 10 Months) x $100, 000 = $10,000 then SPI = EV / PV = 1.
Option A: A CPI or SPI that is less than 1.0 indicates poorer-than-planned project performance.
Options C & D: When CPI or SPI is greater than 1.0, it indicates better-than-planned project performance.
Incorrect
The schedule performance index (SPI) is a measure of the conformance of actual progress (earned value) to the planned progress: SPI = EV / PV (PMBOK 7th edition, page 249). A value of 1.0 indicates that the project performance is on target. EV = 10% x $100,000 = $10,000, PV = (1 Month / 10 Months) x $100, 000 = $10,000 then SPI = EV / PV = 1.
Option A: A CPI or SPI that is less than 1.0 indicates poorer-than-planned project performance.
Options C & D: When CPI or SPI is greater than 1.0, it indicates better-than-planned project performance.
-
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
In agile, what is the planning poker technique used for?
Correct
Planning poker is a card-based technique that is mostly used for estimating project activities. It is a consensus-based estimating technique (PMBOK 7th edition, page 178). It can be used with story points, ideal days, or any other estimation unit. The estimation is done using poker cards. Team members discuss the feature, asking the product owner any questions they might have. Then, privately, each team member picks out one card that presents their estimate. All cards should be then revealed at once. If all team members select the same value, it’s set as the final estimate. Otherwise, a discussion of the different opinions and estimates will take place again before re-estimating the feature or task again.
Incorrect
Planning poker is a card-based technique that is mostly used for estimating project activities. It is a consensus-based estimating technique (PMBOK 7th edition, page 178). It can be used with story points, ideal days, or any other estimation unit. The estimation is done using poker cards. Team members discuss the feature, asking the product owner any questions they might have. Then, privately, each team member picks out one card that presents their estimate. All cards should be then revealed at once. If all team members select the same value, it’s set as the final estimate. Otherwise, a discussion of the different opinions and estimates will take place again before re-estimating the feature or task again.
-
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
A project manager is leading the construction project of a luxury residency. Before proceeding with the site excavation process, a government clearance must be issued. What kind of dependency does this describe?
Correct
External dependency is the relationship between project activities and external activities that are not related to the project. Even though it’s beyond the project team’s control, such a dependency should be reflected in the project schedule.
Option D: Discretionary dependencies, also referred to as soft logic, preferred logic, or preferential logic, are not mandatory (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
Incorrect
External dependency is the relationship between project activities and external activities that are not related to the project. Even though it’s beyond the project team’s control, such a dependency should be reflected in the project schedule.
Option D: Discretionary dependencies, also referred to as soft logic, preferred logic, or preferential logic, are not mandatory (PMBOK 7th edition, page 60).
-
Question 96 of 150
96. Question
During a meeting with 15 team members, the product owner was discussing and collecting ideas about the product requirements. However, since there were a lot of suggested ideas, participants decided to vote. After voting, the product owner finds that a particular idea received 9 votes, so they go with that option. What type of decision-making does this depict?
Correct
Voting is a technique for collective decision-making which can be used to generate and prioritize project requirements.
Options A & C & D: Unanimity, plurality, and majority are examples of voting techniques. A majority decision requires being supported by more than 50% of the group members.
Incorrect
Voting is a technique for collective decision-making which can be used to generate and prioritize project requirements.
Options A & C & D: Unanimity, plurality, and majority are examples of voting techniques. A majority decision requires being supported by more than 50% of the group members.
-
Question 97 of 150
97. Question
A senior software engineer has recently been assigned to manage a project using the Agile approach. To ensure that they successfully deliver the project, the project manager should first:
Correct
To ensure the successful delivery of the project, the project manager should first define success criteria with the sponsor. Agreeing upon the project’s success criteria will reduce the possibilities of its failure and reinforce its success odds. When determining the project success criteria, you should avoid using unclear and general terms and focus on being precise and clear. It’s recommended to be specific by saying, for instance: “the product should be completed by November 30th” instead of saying “the product should be completed as soon as possible”.
Incorrect
To ensure the successful delivery of the project, the project manager should first define success criteria with the sponsor. Agreeing upon the project’s success criteria will reduce the possibilities of its failure and reinforce its success odds. When determining the project success criteria, you should avoid using unclear and general terms and focus on being precise and clear. It’s recommended to be specific by saying, for instance: “the product should be completed by November 30th” instead of saying “the product should be completed as soon as possible”.
-
Question 98 of 150
98. Question
A project manager is assigned to a project that follows an adaptive approach. After gathering all requirements, the project manager previewed 3 to 5 releases to achieve the project goal. They intend to define the details of each release progressively when they get more insight and feedback from key stakeholders. What should the project manager do, taking into consideration that the project has a fixed budget that cannot be exceeded?
Correct
With an adaptive approach, the project’s cost and schedule are fixed, while the scope can be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint. Consequently, the project manager needs to prioritize the most important features when planning each release until they exhaust the whole budget.
Options A & B & C: All other options imply using the predictive approach, which won’t work for this project since its scope is unpredictable.
Incorrect
With an adaptive approach, the project’s cost and schedule are fixed, while the scope can be adjusted to stay within the cost constraint. Consequently, the project manager needs to prioritize the most important features when planning each release until they exhaust the whole budget.
Options A & B & C: All other options imply using the predictive approach, which won’t work for this project since its scope is unpredictable.
-
Question 99 of 150
99. Question
A project manager depends on time-boxing to help team members avoid wasting time on shallow work and stay focused on the main deliverables. Which of the following statements best describes time-boxing?
Correct
A timebox is a fixed period of time in which work has to be completed. The timebox duration could be a few hours, days, or weeks depending on the work complexity or size (PMBOK 7th edition, page 181).
Incorrect
A timebox is a fixed period of time in which work has to be completed. The timebox duration could be a few hours, days, or weeks depending on the work complexity or size (PMBOK 7th edition, page 181).
-
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
Which of the following options falls under the project manager’s responsibilities in Agile?
Correct
In Agile, a project manager (also known as scrum master, project team lead, or team coach) is responsible for removing impediments and ensuring that the cross-functional team performs and delivers the product as initially defined by the product owner (PMBOK 7th edition, page 73 & Agile Practice Guide, pages 40-41).
Incorrect
In Agile, a project manager (also known as scrum master, project team lead, or team coach) is responsible for removing impediments and ensuring that the cross-functional team performs and delivers the product as initially defined by the product owner (PMBOK 7th edition, page 73 & Agile Practice Guide, pages 40-41).
-
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
A project manager is wrapping up a one-year project. Which of the following activities should be prioritized?
Correct
Because projects are temporary endeavors, most of the acquired knowledge is lost once the project is completed. The project manager should be attentive to knowledge documentation and transfer to allow the organization to gain and retain the knowledge and experience obtained through running projects (PMBOK 7th edition, page 78).
Options A, B, D: Once this activity is completed, a celebration could take place and resources can be released. On the other hand, the change log should be updated to monitor the change requests’ status.
Incorrect
Because projects are temporary endeavors, most of the acquired knowledge is lost once the project is completed. The project manager should be attentive to knowledge documentation and transfer to allow the organization to gain and retain the knowledge and experience obtained through running projects (PMBOK 7th edition, page 78).
Options A, B, D: Once this activity is completed, a celebration could take place and resources can be released. On the other hand, the change log should be updated to monitor the change requests’ status.
-
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
During the last sprint, two team members took a leave. A key stakeholder wants to know how many sprints are required to complete the project. How should the project manager calculate velocity?
Correct
The project manager should use the average velocity of the last five sprint as it gives an accurate response about the team capacity.
Incorrect
The project manager should use the average velocity of the last five sprint as it gives an accurate response about the team capacity.
-
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
In an adaptive development approach, which tool or technique focuses on identifying and analyzing features that can deliver immediate value?
Correct
Feature injection is a framework and set of principles designed to enhance and accelerate the development and analysis of product requirements. This approach is particularly favored by teams employing adaptive development methods. Its core concept is to direct discussions and analysis towards features that offer the potential for immediate value (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 88 & 89).
Incorrect
Feature injection is a framework and set of principles designed to enhance and accelerate the development and analysis of product requirements. This approach is particularly favored by teams employing adaptive development methods. Its core concept is to direct discussions and analysis towards features that offer the potential for immediate value (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 88 & 89).
-
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
What is the difference between a corrective and a preventive action?
Correct
Corrective actions are reactive as they’re performed to fix issues that have occurred to bring the project back into alignment with the baselines. Preventive actions, on the other hand, are proactive as they’re taken to ensure that the project doesn’t deviate from the plan.
Options C & D: Both corrective and preventive actions can be part of the executing process group as well as the monitoring process group.
Incorrect
Corrective actions are reactive as they’re performed to fix issues that have occurred to bring the project back into alignment with the baselines. Preventive actions, on the other hand, are proactive as they’re taken to ensure that the project doesn’t deviate from the plan.
Options C & D: Both corrective and preventive actions can be part of the executing process group as well as the monitoring process group.
-
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
Knowledge is sometimes depicted as an iceberg since it involves two categories:
Correct
Knowledge can be either explicit or tacit knowledge. Explicit knowledge can be expressed and captured using pictures, words, and numbers. Tacit knowledge, such as experiences and beliefs, is more difficult to express or capture (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 77-78).
Incorrect
Knowledge can be either explicit or tacit knowledge. Explicit knowledge can be expressed and captured using pictures, words, and numbers. Tacit knowledge, such as experiences and beliefs, is more difficult to express or capture (PMBOK 7th edition, pages 77-78).
-
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
A Product Owner is developing a new product and is considering the tools that will be implemented. What is the primary purpose of using product visioning techniques in this context?
Correct
Product visioning is a tool and technique for the “facilitate product roadmap development” process. It’s used to set the high-level direction for a product or a product release (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 95).
Incorrect
Product visioning is a tool and technique for the “facilitate product roadmap development” process. It’s used to set the high-level direction for a product or a product release (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 95).
-
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
In order to ensure that the project is performed in accordance with the organization’s requirements, the project manager carries out a tailoring process. Under this context, Tailoring is:
Correct
Tailoring involves the selection of the appropriate processes, related inputs and outputs, techniques, and life cycle phases in order to manage a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 6).
Option B: Program management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet the program requirements.
Option D: Project management is the application of a set of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
Incorrect
Tailoring involves the selection of the appropriate processes, related inputs and outputs, techniques, and life cycle phases in order to manage a project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 6).
Option B: Program management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet the program requirements.
Option D: Project management is the application of a set of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.
-
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
As the roadmap is elaborated, the scope of each release may include features, functions, epics, and user stories. This decomposition process is similar to which project management tool?
Correct
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a project management tool that breaks down a project into smaller, more manageable segments, often referred to as work packages. It helps in organizing and defining the total scope of the project by creating a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed.
Option A: The Product Backlog is primarily a prioritized list of features, user stories, and tasks for a product. It focuses on what needs to be done and their priority but does not provide a structured breakdown of work into smaller, manageable segments like the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) does.
Incorrect
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a project management tool that breaks down a project into smaller, more manageable segments, often referred to as work packages. It helps in organizing and defining the total scope of the project by creating a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed.
Option A: The Product Backlog is primarily a prioritized list of features, user stories, and tasks for a product. It focuses on what needs to be done and their priority but does not provide a structured breakdown of work into smaller, manageable segments like the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) does.
-
Question 109 of 150
109. Question
3 months into project execution, the sponsor gets into a financial crisis and asks the project manager to immediately end the project. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
When the project is closed or terminated for any reason, the project manager should start the close process. Procurement closure is part of the “Close project” process. The situation in the question requires project termination, so the Correct Answer implies executing the process that addresses the situation, i.e. the Close Project process. Plus, there is no indication in the question that the project has procurements.
Incorrect
When the project is closed or terminated for any reason, the project manager should start the close process. Procurement closure is part of the “Close project” process. The situation in the question requires project termination, so the Correct Answer implies executing the process that addresses the situation, i.e. the Close Project process. Plus, there is no indication in the question that the project has procurements.
-
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
A project manager is leading a team with distributed members across different countries. Apart from cultural barriers, the team seems disconnected, leading to multiple rework cases. What could the project manager do to improve communication within the team?
Correct
Short daily meetings are referred to as daily standup meetings which represent a framework for sharing what each member has accomplished, what they will be doing next, and what blockers they’re facing. This type of meeting helps build a connection between team members, improves communication, and as a result reduces rework. Co-location can resolve this issue too. However, team members are dispersed in different countries, making it difficult to assemble them in one location.
Option B: Written, asynchronous communication such as emails does not promote bonding or building connections in comparison to verbal synchronous channels such as virtual meetings
Option D: Offering team members training about cultural differences could only help them overcome cultural barriers, but it can’t help them sync their work to avoid rework.
Incorrect
Short daily meetings are referred to as daily standup meetings which represent a framework for sharing what each member has accomplished, what they will be doing next, and what blockers they’re facing. This type of meeting helps build a connection between team members, improves communication, and as a result reduces rework. Co-location can resolve this issue too. However, team members are dispersed in different countries, making it difficult to assemble them in one location.
Option B: Written, asynchronous communication such as emails does not promote bonding or building connections in comparison to verbal synchronous channels such as virtual meetings
Option D: Offering team members training about cultural differences could only help them overcome cultural barriers, but it can’t help them sync their work to avoid rework.
-
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
An organization asked the project manager to send a report on the cost of quality. The report stated that the total cost was $30,000, detailed as follows:
According to the above table, how much is the appraisal cost of the project?Correct
Appraisal costs, also known as inspection costs, are part of the Cost of Conformance as they represent the costs of identifying defective products before they are delivered to clients. This comprises testing, inspecting, auditing, evaluating, and measuring the deliverables, products, or services the project is producing. Appraisal costs are set up to implement a series of activities to determine work results’ degree of conformance to quality requirements. Meaning the project appraisal cost involves inspection costs which are $5,000. Training falls under prevention activities. Rework and scrap costs, on the other hand, are part of the Internal Failure Costs, whereas Warranty charges fall under External Failure Costs.
Incorrect
Appraisal costs, also known as inspection costs, are part of the Cost of Conformance as they represent the costs of identifying defective products before they are delivered to clients. This comprises testing, inspecting, auditing, evaluating, and measuring the deliverables, products, or services the project is producing. Appraisal costs are set up to implement a series of activities to determine work results’ degree of conformance to quality requirements. Meaning the project appraisal cost involves inspection costs which are $5,000. Training falls under prevention activities. Rework and scrap costs, on the other hand, are part of the Internal Failure Costs, whereas Warranty charges fall under External Failure Costs.
-
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
All of the following are either Agile or Lean frameworks except:
Correct
Waterfall is a predictive methodology that was deemed too rigid to handle the changing requirements brought on by new technology or a demanding client. Even though there are numerous Agile and Lean frameworks, the Agile Practice Guide only addresses Scrum, Scrum of scrums, SAFe, Kanban Method, Scrumban, eXtreme Programming (XP), Crystal Methods, Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM), Feature-Driven Development (FDD), and Agile Unified Process.
Incorrect
Waterfall is a predictive methodology that was deemed too rigid to handle the changing requirements brought on by new technology or a demanding client. Even though there are numerous Agile and Lean frameworks, the Agile Practice Guide only addresses Scrum, Scrum of scrums, SAFe, Kanban Method, Scrumban, eXtreme Programming (XP), Crystal Methods, Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM), Feature-Driven Development (FDD), and Agile Unified Process.
-
Question 113 of 150
113. Question
A project manager is leading a construction project. Work on light spots is pending since ceiling tiles are still being installed, which may cause some delays within the project. What should the project manager refer to in order to check the electricity team’s availability in the next two weeks to resolve this dependency?
Correct
A resource calendar is a calendar for planning, managing, and monitoring resources, including both employees and equipment. It gives project managers an overview of how resources are being utilized, which resources are available, and when.
Incorrect
A resource calendar is a calendar for planning, managing, and monitoring resources, including both employees and equipment. It gives project managers an overview of how resources are being utilized, which resources are available, and when.
-
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
While traditional project management follows predefined phases and sticks to the predetermined scope, Agile project management approaches:
Correct
The iterative method is the heart of the Agile development process. Each iteration generates a piece of the product until the final product is fully completed and delivered.
A typical iteration process flow involves:
Analysis: to define the iteration requirements based on the product backlog, sprint backlog, and feedback from customers and stakeholders.
Development: includes design and implementation based on the defined requirements.
Testing: involves Quality Assurance testing.
Delivery: integrating the working iteration into production,
Feedback: receiving customer and stakeholder feedback to define the requirements of the next iteration.
Incorrect
The iterative method is the heart of the Agile development process. Each iteration generates a piece of the product until the final product is fully completed and delivered.
A typical iteration process flow involves:
Analysis: to define the iteration requirements based on the product backlog, sprint backlog, and feedback from customers and stakeholders.
Development: includes design and implementation based on the defined requirements.
Testing: involves Quality Assurance testing.
Delivery: integrating the working iteration into production,
Feedback: receiving customer and stakeholder feedback to define the requirements of the next iteration.
-
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
Grade and quality are two of the most commonly used terms in project management on a daily basis. Which of these statements is correct when talking about a performed service or a developed product?
Correct
Grade refers to a category or rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics. A product can be of a high-grade (high-end) or low-grade (low-end). A low-grade product is perfectly acceptable, as long as it fulfills requirements.
Option A & C: A low-quality product is always a problem and is never acceptable. Every produced item must have high quality regardless of its grade; no one wants a low-quality product. Example: You buy a basic model (low-grade) cell phone with no advanced features, but it works well. Thus, we’re talking about a high-quality product. Although it is low-grade, it keeps you satisfied (PMBOK 7th edition, page 241).
Incorrect
Grade refers to a category or rank given to entities having the same functional use but different technical characteristics. A product can be of a high-grade (high-end) or low-grade (low-end). A low-grade product is perfectly acceptable, as long as it fulfills requirements.
Option A & C: A low-quality product is always a problem and is never acceptable. Every produced item must have high quality regardless of its grade; no one wants a low-quality product. Example: You buy a basic model (low-grade) cell phone with no advanced features, but it works well. Thus, we’re talking about a high-quality product. Although it is low-grade, it keeps you satisfied (PMBOK 7th edition, page 241).
-
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
Which type of information radiator shows the amount of remaining work in a sprint?
Correct
A burndown chart visually represents the remaining story points or the reduction in risk exposure over time.
Incorrect
A burndown chart visually represents the remaining story points or the reduction in risk exposure over time.
-
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
After a brainstorming session, what technique is used to organize and categorize the elaborated ideas into groups?
Correct
An Affinity Diagram is a tool used to organize and categorize ideas or information generated during a brainstorming session into related groups or themes. It helps to bring order to a large volume of data by grouping similar ideas together, making it easier to see patterns and relationships. This technique is especially useful when dealing with complex issues or when the brainstorming session produces a lot of ideas that need to be sorted and prioritized (Business analysis for practitioners, page 105).
Incorrect
An Affinity Diagram is a tool used to organize and categorize ideas or information generated during a brainstorming session into related groups or themes. It helps to bring order to a large volume of data by grouping similar ideas together, making it easier to see patterns and relationships. This technique is especially useful when dealing with complex issues or when the brainstorming session produces a lot of ideas that need to be sorted and prioritized (Business analysis for practitioners, page 105).
-
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
Halfway through the iteration, the project manager realizes that some user stories are unexpectedly delayed. Along with identifying any potential impediments, the project manager works on helping their team ______________ Work In Progress (WIP).
Correct
To improve productivity and efficiency, an agile team needs to limit Work In Progress (WIP). Limiting work in progress is a technique to troubleshoot unexpected or unforeseen delays (Agile Practice Guide, page 59).
Incorrect
To improve productivity and efficiency, an agile team needs to limit Work In Progress (WIP). Limiting work in progress is a technique to troubleshoot unexpected or unforeseen delays (Agile Practice Guide, page 59).
-
Question 119 of 150
119. Question
A Scrum Master attends or facilitates the different Scrum events including the Sprint, Sprint planning, Daily standup, Sprint review, and Sprint retrospective. Which of the following options describes the sprint retrospective meeting?
Correct
During the sprint retrospective meeting, all the good and bad aspects of the sprint are discussed. The retrospective meeting is considered a meeting for improvements, as it is mainly held to find the proper ways and means of identifying potential pitfalls and past errors, and to seek out new ways to avoid those mistakes. This meeting isn’t held at the end of the project’s last sprint; it recurrently takes place after the Sprint Review and before the following Sprint Planning.
Option A: A backlog refinement meeting is used to refine product backlog items.
Option C: The sprint planning meeting is used to define and evaluate the work of the next sprint
Incorrect
During the sprint retrospective meeting, all the good and bad aspects of the sprint are discussed. The retrospective meeting is considered a meeting for improvements, as it is mainly held to find the proper ways and means of identifying potential pitfalls and past errors, and to seek out new ways to avoid those mistakes. This meeting isn’t held at the end of the project’s last sprint; it recurrently takes place after the Sprint Review and before the following Sprint Planning.
Option A: A backlog refinement meeting is used to refine product backlog items.
Option C: The sprint planning meeting is used to define and evaluate the work of the next sprint
-
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
An organization is making a progressive transition from the predictive to the adaptive approach. What can the project manager do to prepare their team for the transition? (Select two)
Correct
The project manager should provide their team with relevant training in order to enable them to adopt the new agile practices with more confidence. They should also gradually introduce certain iterative or incremental techniques to make the transition smoother. This will improve the team learning process and accelerate delivering value to sponsors. Many teams can’t make a full immediate switch to the agile approach. It is preferable and even recommended to make a gradual transition by combining adaptive and predictive practices, which is known as a hybrid approach (Agile Practice Guide, page 30).
Incorrect
The project manager should provide their team with relevant training in order to enable them to adopt the new agile practices with more confidence. They should also gradually introduce certain iterative or incremental techniques to make the transition smoother. This will improve the team learning process and accelerate delivering value to sponsors. Many teams can’t make a full immediate switch to the agile approach. It is preferable and even recommended to make a gradual transition by combining adaptive and predictive practices, which is known as a hybrid approach (Agile Practice Guide, page 30).
-
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
Which of the following entities is responsible for establishing standardized project governance processes across an organization by defining project management frameworks and templates?
Correct
A management structure that standardizes project governance processes and promotes the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques (PMBOK 7th edition, page 245).
Incorrect
A management structure that standardizes project governance processes and promotes the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques (PMBOK 7th edition, page 245).
-
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
What does servant leadership imply?
Correct
According to the Agile Practice Guide, servant leadership implies leading your team by focusing on understanding and addressing their needs to yield the best performance possible (PMBOK 7th edition, page 17).
Incorrect
According to the Agile Practice Guide, servant leadership implies leading your team by focusing on understanding and addressing their needs to yield the best performance possible (PMBOK 7th edition, page 17).
-
Question 123 of 150
123. Question
A project manager created the following high-level hierarchical list of human and physical resources of a project that consists in creating a bulk SMS platform for marketing campaigns. What does this visual illustration represent?
Correct
A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical list of team and physical resources related by category and resource type that is used for project planning, management, and control (PMBOK 7th edition, page 187). Each descending level corresponds to a more detailed description of the resource.
Incorrect
A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical list of team and physical resources related by category and resource type that is used for project planning, management, and control (PMBOK 7th edition, page 187). Each descending level corresponds to a more detailed description of the resource.
-
Question 124 of 150
124. Question
An organization is conducting several projects, each with its own deadline, which requires assigning the available resources simultaneously to different projects. Concerned about potential delays in her project, a project manager consults with the functional manager to discuss the allocation of additional resources. Which is the most crucial skill for the project manager in this situation?
Correct
Negotiation is the most important skill for project managers to have when working with extremely limited budgets and resource allocations.
Incorrect
Negotiation is the most important skill for project managers to have when working with extremely limited budgets and resource allocations.
-
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
Which of the following Scrum meetings is product-centered?
Correct
The Sprint Review is a product-centered meeting, during which the agile team demonstrates the functionalities they have completed during the sprint, seeking the Product Owner’s feedback and approval (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
Incorrect
The Sprint Review is a product-centered meeting, during which the agile team demonstrates the functionalities they have completed during the sprint, seeking the Product Owner’s feedback and approval (PMBOK 7th edition, page 179).
-
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
After defining the project’s high-level requirements, the agile team along with the product owner begin writing down a list of the product features, including short descriptions of all the functionalities they’re going to deliver. Next, they’re going to prioritize the product backlog based on:
Correct
The product backlog should be prioritized and organized based on the value that each item brings to the product and project. This value depends on several factors such as the item’s complexity, criticality, and the risk associated with it. However, these factors are not the basis to determine the items’ value. Each item’s value is dictated by the Product Owner as well as the items’ sequence in the product backlog.
Incorrect
The product backlog should be prioritized and organized based on the value that each item brings to the product and project. This value depends on several factors such as the item’s complexity, criticality, and the risk associated with it. However, these factors are not the basis to determine the items’ value. Each item’s value is dictated by the Product Owner as well as the items’ sequence in the product backlog.
-
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
A project manager was asked to lead a project of flight booking website development. The airline requested that the website should be able to support one thousand visitors per hour. This condition is also known as a(n): (Select two)
Correct
The condition of supporting one thousand visitors per hour is considered a requirement and an acceptance criterion for the project. A requirement is defined as “a condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.” (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 82). Acceptance criteria are conditions required to be met before deliverables are accepted. This condition cannot be considered a deliverable or scope on its own.
Option B: The project scope, on the other hand, represents the overall amount of work required to achieve the project’s main objectives.
Option D: Deliverables refer to quantifiable products or services that must be delivered by the end of the project, i.e., the flight booking website.
Incorrect
The condition of supporting one thousand visitors per hour is considered a requirement and an acceptance criterion for the project. A requirement is defined as “a condition or capability that is necessary to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.” (PMBOK Guide 7th edition, page 82). Acceptance criteria are conditions required to be met before deliverables are accepted. This condition cannot be considered a deliverable or scope on its own.
Option B: The project scope, on the other hand, represents the overall amount of work required to achieve the project’s main objectives.
Option D: Deliverables refer to quantifiable products or services that must be delivered by the end of the project, i.e., the flight booking website.
-
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
A project manager is leading an iterative project. The product owner calls for a meeting with the project team and other prominent stakeholders to review a demonstration of the produced deliverable. When should the project manager organize this meeting?
Correct
Iteration review meetings take place at the end of each iteration to allow the project team to obtain feedback from the product owner and concerned stakeholders on a regular basis.
Incorrect
Iteration review meetings take place at the end of each iteration to allow the project team to obtain feedback from the product owner and concerned stakeholders on a regular basis.
-
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
One of the project team’s key members leaves the project for personal reasons. The project manager did not plan for such a scenario but they managed to get a replacement with the help of a staffing agency. However, they have to pay them a higher salary. This will result in extra costs which fall under the project’s:
Correct
Management reserve involves the dedicated budget or time reserve for handling unidentified risks or unknown unknowns (unknown = unidentified, unknowns = risks). This type of reserve is not a calculated budget and does not take part in the cost baseline. Therefore, anytime an unknown risk occurs, the project manager will need permission to use this reserve.
Option A: A contingency reserve is used for identified risks with predetermined risk response strategies, aka known-unknowns (known = identified, Unknowns = risks) (PMBOK 7th edition, page 127).
Incorrect
Management reserve involves the dedicated budget or time reserve for handling unidentified risks or unknown unknowns (unknown = unidentified, unknowns = risks). This type of reserve is not a calculated budget and does not take part in the cost baseline. Therefore, anytime an unknown risk occurs, the project manager will need permission to use this reserve.
Option A: A contingency reserve is used for identified risks with predetermined risk response strategies, aka known-unknowns (known = identified, Unknowns = risks) (PMBOK 7th edition, page 127).
-
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
A project manager is leading a team of 5 members to develop a mobile app. Which project life cycle should the project manager adopt?
Correct
The project life cycle that can be adopted for developing a mobile app project is: Wireframing, prototyping, designing, developing, testing, and deploying. A project life cycle comprises the different development phases that a project goes through from its start to its completion. Depending on different factors, a project lifecycle often includes Feasibility, Design, Build, Test, Deploy, and Close phases (PMBOK 7, pages 33 – 42).
Option A: Initiation, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing are process groups rather than project lifecycle phases.
Option D: Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning are team development phases according to Tuckman’s theory.
Incorrect
The project life cycle that can be adopted for developing a mobile app project is: Wireframing, prototyping, designing, developing, testing, and deploying. A project life cycle comprises the different development phases that a project goes through from its start to its completion. Depending on different factors, a project lifecycle often includes Feasibility, Design, Build, Test, Deploy, and Close phases (PMBOK 7, pages 33 – 42).
Option A: Initiation, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing are process groups rather than project lifecycle phases.
Option D: Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning are team development phases according to Tuckman’s theory.
-
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
Place the following project budget components in the right position in the figure below: Project budget, Cost baseline, Contingency reserve, and Management reserve.
Correct
The project total amount is composed of the management reserve and the project budget, which in turn is composed of the cost baseline and contingency reserve (PMBOK 7th edition, page 63). Therefore, A = Management reserve, B = Project budget, C = Contingency reserve, and D = Cost baseline.
Incorrect
The project total amount is composed of the management reserve and the project budget, which in turn is composed of the cost baseline and contingency reserve (PMBOK 7th edition, page 63). Therefore, A = Management reserve, B = Project budget, C = Contingency reserve, and D = Cost baseline.
-
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
In order to handle high levels of change and ensure the active participation of all interested parties, a project manager adopts a change-driven project development approach, which is also known as:
Correct
A change-driven approach is also referred to as an adaptive, Agile, flexible, or change-focused approach. This development approach is characterized by the ability to react and adapt to high levels of change as well as the constant involvement and participation of different parties.
Option C: A waterfall or predictive approach is sequential and rigid.
Option D: Hybrid is a combination of predictive and adaptive approaches.
Incorrect
A change-driven approach is also referred to as an adaptive, Agile, flexible, or change-focused approach. This development approach is characterized by the ability to react and adapt to high levels of change as well as the constant involvement and participation of different parties.
Option C: A waterfall or predictive approach is sequential and rigid.
Option D: Hybrid is a combination of predictive and adaptive approaches.
-
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A business analyst is assessing the business needs for a certain project. Which tool or technique involves conducting a study in which it evaluates different factors that could lead to valuable recommendations?
Correct
Feasibility analysis involves assessing various factors to evaluate the viability of different options being considered. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 86)
Option D: A cost-benefit analysis evaluates the financial return of implementing the solution by comparing the expected benefits against the costs. It’s an effective way to assess the business value of a solution.
Incorrect
Feasibility analysis involves assessing various factors to evaluate the viability of different options being considered. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 86)
Option D: A cost-benefit analysis evaluates the financial return of implementing the solution by comparing the expected benefits against the costs. It’s an effective way to assess the business value of a solution.
-
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
Working in a predictive environment, a project manager has decided to use a three-point estimation with a beta distribution to measure the cost of project activities.
Which of the following formulas should the project manager use?
Correct
The three-point estimation formula using a beta (weighted average) distribution is as follows: (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 × Most likely)) ÷ 6.
Option A: The three-point estimation formula uses a triangular distribution (simple average) as follows: (Optimistic + Pessimistic + Most likely) ÷ 3.
Incorrect
The three-point estimation formula using a beta (weighted average) distribution is as follows: (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 × Most likely)) ÷ 6.
Option A: The three-point estimation formula uses a triangular distribution (simple average) as follows: (Optimistic + Pessimistic + Most likely) ÷ 3.
-
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
Which of the following is not considered an elicitation technique?
Correct
Use case is a tool and technique used to define and elaborate requirements, not to conduct the elicitation process. All the other options are tools and techniques for conducting the elicitation process (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 164).
Incorrect
Use case is a tool and technique used to define and elaborate requirements, not to conduct the elicitation process. All the other options are tools and techniques for conducting the elicitation process (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 164).
-
Question 136 of 150
136. Question
A project manager is leading a construction project. In order to track the project’s progress, the project manager sets milestones in the project schedule. What is the typical duration of a milestone?
Correct
The duration of a milestone is zero because it denotes a significant achievement, point, or event in a project, such as the completion of a particular deliverable for instance (PMI – Process groups guide, page 213).
Incorrect
The duration of a milestone is zero because it denotes a significant achievement, point, or event in a project, such as the completion of a particular deliverable for instance (PMI – Process groups guide, page 213).
-
Question 137 of 150
137. Question
In order to gather end-user feedback, a senior project manager of an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) project discusses several ideas with the project team and then they draw the following diagram. What tool are they using?
Correct
The project manager and their team used the mind mapping technique. In a mind map, several options get discussed and then visually organized.
Incorrect
The project manager and their team used the mind mapping technique. In a mind map, several options get discussed and then visually organized.
-
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
Who should prioritize items in the sprint backlog?
Correct
Apart from the development team, nobody should decide the stories’ order in the sprint backlog. Instead, team members should define their own task-level work and then self-organize in any manner they feel best to achieve the sprint goal (Essential Scrum by Rubin, Kenneth S, page 23). The “sprint backlog” is different from the “product backlog”. A sprint backlog is the set of items that the cross-functional team selects from the product backlog to work on during the upcoming sprint. The sprint backlog represents the primary output of sprint planning.
Incorrect
Apart from the development team, nobody should decide the stories’ order in the sprint backlog. Instead, team members should define their own task-level work and then self-organize in any manner they feel best to achieve the sprint goal (Essential Scrum by Rubin, Kenneth S, page 23). The “sprint backlog” is different from the “product backlog”. A sprint backlog is the set of items that the cross-functional team selects from the product backlog to work on during the upcoming sprint. The sprint backlog represents the primary output of sprint planning.
-
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
A project manager is leading a project using an adaptive development approach. How should the project manager plan the project activities?
Correct
Planning activities in an adaptive approach entails progressively elaborating the work scope based on the stakeholders’ continuous feedback. The project is split into iterations, and at the end of each iteration, the customer reviews the accomplished work on the product. Then, the customer’s feedback is used to define the detailed scope of the next iteration.
Option A & D: Defining all iterations’ work before the start of the project depicts an iterative development approach while implementing activities described in the statement of work depicts a predictive development approach.
Incorrect
Planning activities in an adaptive approach entails progressively elaborating the work scope based on the stakeholders’ continuous feedback. The project is split into iterations, and at the end of each iteration, the customer reviews the accomplished work on the product. Then, the customer’s feedback is used to define the detailed scope of the next iteration.
Option A & D: Defining all iterations’ work before the start of the project depicts an iterative development approach while implementing activities described in the statement of work depicts a predictive development approach.
-
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
When an agile team was discussing the technical choices of their new project during the zero sprint, a senior team member recalled a similar past project that went through some big challenges and ended up being over budget and behind schedule. What should the project manager do next?
Correct
Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) include processes, procedures, and the corporate knowledge base. To understand a past project’s performance, the project manager should review various documents such as scope, schedule, cost, quality baselines, administrative records, stakeholder register, and issue log. Relying solely on the issue log might not reveal all the challenges faced.
Option B: Unlike OPAs, Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF) do not contain project performance details.
Option D: Even if the new project is agile and the previous one was predictive, leveraging documented lessons learned is necessary, as challenges may not be linked to the project approach.
Incorrect
Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) include processes, procedures, and the corporate knowledge base. To understand a past project’s performance, the project manager should review various documents such as scope, schedule, cost, quality baselines, administrative records, stakeholder register, and issue log. Relying solely on the issue log might not reveal all the challenges faced.
Option B: Unlike OPAs, Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF) do not contain project performance details.
Option D: Even if the new project is agile and the previous one was predictive, leveraging documented lessons learned is necessary, as challenges may not be linked to the project approach.
-
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
A project manager closed all contracts related to their construction project, except one that concerns setting up security cameras. The only thing left for this contract is to go through a quick inspection by an expert in order to check out wireless connection, night vision, cloud storage, etc. Knowing that the security cameras are working fine and that the project needs to be closed as soon as possible, what should the project manager do?
Correct
The project manager should keep both the contract and the project open until the seller performs the inspection.
Option B: Closing a contract in return requires verifying that the seller has delivered their work as predetermined in the contract.
Option C: Closing a project entails conducting several processes and steps including closing out all contracts.
Incorrect
The project manager should keep both the contract and the project open until the seller performs the inspection.
Option B: Closing a contract in return requires verifying that the seller has delivered their work as predetermined in the contract.
Option C: Closing a project entails conducting several processes and steps including closing out all contracts.
-
Question 142 of 150
142. Question
A project manager has been assigned to an agile project that is already mid-execution. Which of the following should the project manager check to examine the high-level description of the project scope?
Correct
The project manager should refer to the project charter to find the ‘high-level description‘ of the project. The project charter is a formal document that describes the project in its entirety, including its objectives, work processes, and stakeholders. This project planning document can be used throughout the whole project lifecycle (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
Options B & C: User stories and epics only represent the detailed requirements, not the entire high-level description of the project scope.
Option D: The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) also outlines the detailed requirements of projects that follow a predictive approach.
Incorrect
The project manager should refer to the project charter to find the ‘high-level description‘ of the project. The project charter is a formal document that describes the project in its entirety, including its objectives, work processes, and stakeholders. This project planning document can be used throughout the whole project lifecycle (PMBOK 7th edition, page 184).
Options B & C: User stories and epics only represent the detailed requirements, not the entire high-level description of the project scope.
Option D: The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) also outlines the detailed requirements of projects that follow a predictive approach.
-
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
A predefined budget allocation is a project ___________________
Correct
Project constraints are limiting factors for your project that can impact delivery, quality, and overall project success. An imposed delivery date or a predefined budget are considered project constraints (PMBOK 7th edition, page 72).
Incorrect
Project constraints are limiting factors for your project that can impact delivery, quality, and overall project success. An imposed delivery date or a predefined budget are considered project constraints (PMBOK 7th edition, page 72).
-
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
A project manager has just put the finishing touches on her final project report before meeting with her manager. She spent the last few weeks holding numerous lessons-learned sessions to get feedback from project participants for the final report. For what reasons did the project manager hold lessons learned sessions? (Select three)
Correct
Lessons learned sessions are performed for the purpose of learning from mistakes in order to avoid repeating them in the future. They also serve as an opportunity to identify and establish best practices and build trust with stakeholders and team members.
Option B: Lessons learned meetings should not be used to hold others accountable for mistakes made during the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 180).
Incorrect
Lessons learned sessions are performed for the purpose of learning from mistakes in order to avoid repeating them in the future. They also serve as an opportunity to identify and establish best practices and build trust with stakeholders and team members.
Option B: Lessons learned meetings should not be used to hold others accountable for mistakes made during the project (PMBOK 7th edition, page 180).
-
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
At the end of the project, and during the lessons learned meeting, a project manager presents the following chart, stating that project expenditures over time form a(n) ____________.
Correct
S-Curves visualize the evolution of a project cost over a period of time. The name is derived from the S-shape that data usually form, with low costs at the project’s start and end, and increasingly elevated costs mid-project.
Incorrect
S-Curves visualize the evolution of a project cost over a period of time. The name is derived from the S-shape that data usually form, with low costs at the project’s start and end, and increasingly elevated costs mid-project.
-
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
A project manager facilitates a meeting attended by project stakeholders to discuss a recurring issue with one of the project vendors. As a facilitator, the project manager should: (Select two)
Correct
Facilitation means assisting others in dealing with a process, reaching an agreement, or finding a solution without personally or directly getting involved in the process, discussion, etc. For the facilitator to maintain an impartial position, they should approach the discussion as an unbiased voice.
Incorrect
Facilitation means assisting others in dealing with a process, reaching an agreement, or finding a solution without personally or directly getting involved in the process, discussion, etc. For the facilitator to maintain an impartial position, they should approach the discussion as an unbiased voice.
-
Question 147 of 150
147. Question
A business analyst needs to get early feedback before the full development of the product. What technique should the business analyst use?
Correct
Prototyping is a technique used to gather early feedback on requirements by presenting a model of the anticipated solution prior to its full development. These prototypes, often referred to as proofs of concept (PoCs), help validate ideas and refine requirements before the final implementation. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 168)
Incorrect
Prototyping is a technique used to gather early feedback on requirements by presenting a model of the anticipated solution prior to its full development. These prototypes, often referred to as proofs of concept (PoCs), help validate ideas and refine requirements before the final implementation. (PMI Guide to Business Analysis, page 168)
-
Question 148 of 150
148. Question
Which is the most important characteristic of an Agile team?
Correct
Flexibility and adaptability are the core principles of Agile.
Options A & C & D: All other skills can be developed over time when the Agile team gets to learn from its own experiences.
Incorrect
Flexibility and adaptability are the core principles of Agile.
Options A & C & D: All other skills can be developed over time when the Agile team gets to learn from its own experiences.
-
Question 149 of 150
149. Question
A project manager is overseeing a predictive project within a functional organization. During execution, the project manager faced an issue that wasn’t identified in the planning phase. To address this, additional work needs to be added to the project scope, leading to an increase in project costs. To whom should the project manager escalate the request for additional funds to complete this work?
Correct
In a functional organization, the project manager doesn’t manage the budget. Thus, they should escalate the need for additional funds to the functional manager. If the functional manager validates their assessment, they will need to escalate their request to the project sponsor to approve allocating additional financial resources. If the project manager was working in a projectized or strong matrix organization, they wouldn’t need to raise their request for more funds to the functional manager.
Option A: A program manager, as the name suggests, only handles programs, which is not the case in this scenario.
Option B: The product owner’s role is limited to the scrum framework, which is an adaptive approach. If that were the case, the project manager would need to report similar issues to the product owner, who will escalate the matter to the project sponsor.
Incorrect
In a functional organization, the project manager doesn’t manage the budget. Thus, they should escalate the need for additional funds to the functional manager. If the functional manager validates their assessment, they will need to escalate their request to the project sponsor to approve allocating additional financial resources. If the project manager was working in a projectized or strong matrix organization, they wouldn’t need to raise their request for more funds to the functional manager.
Option A: A program manager, as the name suggests, only handles programs, which is not the case in this scenario.
Option B: The product owner’s role is limited to the scrum framework, which is an adaptive approach. If that were the case, the project manager would need to report similar issues to the product owner, who will escalate the matter to the project sponsor.
-
Question 150 of 150
150. Question
In the project initiation phase, the sponsor requested an approximate estimation of the project cost by the end of the day. What should the project manager do?
Correct
Given the sponsor’s request for a cost estimate on short notice with limited information, the project manager should use analogous estimating, relying on data from similar past projects and expert judgment.
Option A: The project manager cannot create product backlog items (a responsibility of the product owner).
Option B: Developing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is not feasible due to the time required and the need for team involvement.
Incorrect
Given the sponsor’s request for a cost estimate on short notice with limited information, the project manager should use analogous estimating, relying on data from similar past projects and expert judgment.
Option A: The project manager cannot create product backlog items (a responsibility of the product owner).
Option B: Developing the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is not feasible due to the time required and the need for team involvement.
CAPM Practice Test Syllabus
In the Project Management Fundamentals & Core Concepts section (around 54 questions), you’ll find questions on the project lifecycle, process groups, key terminology, and PM roles and responsibilities. These are essential building blocks for any project management professional and form the foundation of your CAPM learning.
The Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies section includes approximately 26 questions focused on traditional project management approaches. Expect to answer questions on Work Breakdown Structures (WBS), scheduling techniques, change control, scope and quality management, and structured documentation.
Around 30 questions in this test cover Agile Frameworks and Methodologies, including Scrum, Kanban, and other adaptive models. You’ll be tested on agile values and principles, roles like Scrum Master and Product Owner, and practices like sprint planning, backlog grooming, and retrospectives.
Finally, the Business Analysis section consists of about 40 questions that test your knowledge of requirements gathering, stakeholder communication, traceability, and frameworks such as SWOT and PESTLE. This section reflects the growing importance of business analysis in modern project environments.
You will get 180 minutes to complete this mock test just like the real exam. Also, there is no negative marking, so it’s best to attempt every question. Once finished, you will receive a detailed score breakdown along with explanations for every answer, helping you identify strengths and focus areas for improvement. This full length test is ideal for building confidence, practicing time management, and reinforcing your exam readiness. After finishing, you can continue with Mock Test 2 or try our topic-wise practice tests to strengthen specific areas.
CAPM Mock Test Format
The CAPM Mock Test on ExamValid.com features a mix of question formats to give you a real exam-like experience. These include multiple-choice questions where you select the single best answer, multiple-selection questions that require choosing more than one correct option, drag-and-drop questions that test your understanding of sequences or relationships, and fill-in-the-blank type questions that challenge your recall of key concepts and terms. Practicing with these diverse formats will help you feel confident and well-prepared for the actual CAPM exam.
CAPM Exam Registration Process
To Register, visit the PMI website at www.pmi.org. Your registration will be processed within 24 hours or less once submitted.
There is a fee to take the CAPM certification exam. See the PMI website for current prices. Members of PMI get a reduced rate. You do not need to become a member to take the CAPM exam or maintain your status.
To register for the exam:
- Go to www.pmi.org. Click the Certifications tab and select Project Management Professional (PMP)® under Certifications.
- Select Continue under Apply for CAPM Certification and create an account with PMI. You do not need to be a member to create an account. You will need a username and password.
- Read the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Before you proceed, you must confirm that you agree with it. Note: You will be tested on this code in the CAPM certification exam. Download a copy for your study reference.
- Provide the requested information regarding your educational experience. The registration process is very short and easy to complete. PMI will contact you within 24 hours to confirm your registration.
- Once approved, you must provide your credit card information and pay the exam fee. Consider becoming a member. You will receive an immediate $75 discount on the exam as a member. PMI has a wealth of information available to members.
- You will have an opportunity to take your online exam at your convenience. You will learn more about this subject later in this course.